Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 51 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: The energy _______ from the sun is renewable and environmentally-friendly. A. harnessing B. is harnessed C. which harnessed D. harnessed Question 2: We truly respected our father and always _______ by his rule. A. submitted B. obeyed C. complied D. abode Question 3: The architects have made _______ use of glass and transparent plastic. A. imaginative B. imagine C. imagination D. imaginatively Question 4: Tom denied _______ part in the fighting at school. A. to take B. take C. to taking D. taking Question 5: Your brother hardly talks to anyone, _______? A. does he B. is he C. doesn’t he D. isn’t he Question 6: Pesticide residues in fruit and vegetable can be _______ to health. A. crucial B. supportive C. receptive D. destructive Question 7: You looked exhausted. I think you’ve _______ more than you can handle. A. turned on B. taken up C. turned up D. taken on Question 8: Only after she had finished the course did she realize she _____ a wrong choice. A. had made B. has made C. had been making D. was making Question 9: It ______ Sue that you saw last night. She’s abroad with her family. A. should have been B. must have been C. can’t have been D. needn’t have been Question 10: If Paul _______ a job now, he wouldn’t be so unhappy. A. has B. has had C. had D. would have Question 11: The wine had made him a little _______ and couldn’t control his movement. A. narrow-minded B. light-headed C. light-footed D. light-hearted Question 12: You need to make ______ about what course to take at university. A. a decision B. a fortune C. a guess D. an impression Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 13: Mike an Joe are talking about transport in the future. - Mike: “Do you think there will be pilotless planes?” – Joe: “_____” A. I’m afraid I can’t. B. What for? There are quite a few around. C. Why not? There have been cars without drivers. D. I’m glad you like it. Question 14: Julie and Ann are talking about their classmate. - Julie: “_______” - Ann: “Yeah, not bad, I suppose.” A. Do you see him often? B. What are you thinking? C. How did you meet him? D. He is quite good-looking, isn’t he? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 15: The way the care-taker treated those little children was deplorable. She must be punished for what she did. A. respectable B. unacceptable C. mischievous D. satisfactory Question 16: My parent’ warnings didn’t deter me from choosing the job of my dreams. A. influence B. discourage C. reassure D. inspire Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 17: A. quality B. solution C. compliment D. energy Question 18: A. angry B. complete C. polite D. secure Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 23. My first job was a sales assistant at a large department store. I wanted to work part-time, because I was still studying at university and I was only able to work a few nights a week. I came across the advertisem*nt in the local newspaper. I remember the interview as though it were yesterday. The (19) ________ manager sat behind a large desk. He asked me various questions which surprised me because all I wanted was to work in sales. An hours later, I was told that I had got the job and was given a contract to go over. I was to be trained for ten days before I took my post. Also, as a member of staff, I was (20) ______ to some benefits, including discounts. When I eventually started, I was responsible (21) _______ the toy section. I really enjoyed it there and I loved demonstrating the different toys. I was surprised at how friendly my colleagues were, too. They made working there Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose fun even when we had to deal with customers (22) ______ got on our nerves. (23) _______, working there was a great experience which I will never forget. Question 19: A. personal B. personable C. personage D. personnel Question 20: A. catered B. given C. entitled D. supplied Question 21: A. for B. with C. in D. to Question 22: A. which B. why C. when D. who Question 23: A. In contrast B. However C. Moreover D. On the whole Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 24: A. visits B. destroys C. believes D. depends Question 25: A. floor B. door C. noodle D. board Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often. Question 26: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. doctors B. ideas C. professionals D. companies Question 27: The phrase “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means _______. A. poor ideas about the effects of cellphones B. information on the lethal effects of cellphones C. the negative public use of cellphones D. widespread opinion about bad effect of cellphones Question 28: According to the passage, cellphones are very popular with young people because _______. A. they make them look more stylish B. they are worrying C. they are a means of communication D. they are considered unusual Question 29: What could be the most suitable title for the passage? A. Technological Innovations and Their Price B. The Way Mobile Phones Work C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time D. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular Question 30: The word “potentially” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _______. A. possibly B. privately C. obviously D. certainly Question 31: According to the passage, people should _______. A. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies B. never use mobile phones in all cases C. only use mobile phone in urgent cases D. keep off mobile phones regularly Question 32: According to paragraph 3, the salesman _______. A. couldn’t remember his name B. blamed his doctor C. had a problem with memory D. had to retire because of his age Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 33: I think it’s impossible to abolish school examinations. They are necessary to evaluate students’ progress. A. stop B. extinguish C. continue D. organize Question 34: At first, no one believed she was a pilot, but her documents lent colour to her statements. A. provided evidence for B. got information from C. borrowed colour from D. gave no proof of Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. TRAVELING TO WORK If you were going to choose a job that involves travel, what would be your first choice? There are many jobs available today that give people opportunities to travel. Although may traveling careers sound fantastic, they also have disadvantages. ➢ Being an au pair is an excellent way to not only go to different countries, but to live in different places around the world and really get a feel for the culture. Au pairs lives with the families they are placed with and take of children. Many parents include au pairs in family events and vacations, so they experience many aspects of the new culture while on the job. However, many of the activities are centered around the children, so they may not get to experience many things that interest adults. ➢ For people who want a bit more freedom working abroad, being an English teacher maybe a good choice. There are English teaching jobs in almost countries in the world. People teaching English in other countries often have a chance to travel on the weekends around the country. One drawback is that many teachers often wind up hanging out with other English teachers, and they don’t have time to learn the country’s language. ➢ The nickname “roadie” implies that this job involves life on the road. Roadies are people who work and travel with bands and provide technical support. Roadies can be lighting and stage crew who set up the stage and break it down before and after events. They can also be technicians helping band members with their instruments. International tours take a band’s crew to cities around the world, often requiring air travel. However, the crew doesn’t get much time off, so they may travel to several countries without seeing much besides concert venues and hotels. ➢ Similarly, flight attendants often travel to cities around the world, but they don’t see much besides the inside of airplanes and hotels. However, when they do have time off, they can often fly at no cost, and family member can sometimes fly free as well. Its is widely thought that a flight attendant job is glamorous, but flight attendants must deal with travel hassles, as well as security issues. ➢ All jobs gave advantages and disadvantages whether or not you travel for work, so if you have the travel bug, keep these jobs in mind for the future. Question 35: Which of the following is a disadvantage of the job as an au pair? A. experience many interesting things B. live in different places around the world C. experience many aspects of the new culture D. most activities are centered around children Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Jobs with opportunities to travel B. Disadvantages of travelling jobs C. Travelling to and from work D. Jobs involving traveling by planes Question 37: The word “glamorous” in paragraph 5 is closet in meaning to _______. A. skilled B. attractive C. permanent D. challenging Question 38: How is a flight attendant’s job similar to a roadie’s? A. Family members may not have to pay for flights B. They must deal with travel hassles. C. A lot of time is spent indoors. D. They provide technical support. Question 39: The word “venue” in paragraph 4 is closet meaning to _______? A. performances B. places C. tours D. artists Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _______? A. people B. opportunities C. careers D. disadvantages Question 41: Which of the following is something a roadie might do? A. set up the lights for a performance B. play the guitar in front of a large audience C. clean hotel rooms after the ban and crew have left D. work on the road Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that _______. A. travelling careers have more disadvantages than many other B. English teachers abroad don’t know the language of the country where they work C. it’s essential that the job you choose have more benefits than drawbacks D. people who want to travel are more likely to get a job Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 43: “I haven’t been very open-minded,” said the manager. A. The manager promised to be very open-minded. B. The manager admitted not having been very open-minded. C. The manager denied having been very open-minded. D. The manager refused to have been very open-minded. Question 44: They believe that burning fossil fuels is the main cause of air pollution. A. It is believed that burning fossil fuels is held responsible for air pollution. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose B. Burning fossil fuels is believed to result from air pollution. C. Burning fossil fuels is believed to have caused high levels of air pollution. D. It is believed that air pollution is mainly to blame for burning fossil fuels. Question 45: Peter used to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. A. Peter enjoyed working as a journalist for a local newspaper. B. Peter no longer likes the job as a journalist for a local newspaper. C. Peter has stopped working as a journalist for a local newspaper. D. Peter refused to work as a journalist for a local newspaper. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46: He missed the opportunity to study abroad. He didn’t realize the importance of English. A. He hadn’t realized the importance of English until he missed the opportunity to study abroad. B. Had he missed the opportunity to study abroad, he wouldn’t have realized the importance of English. C. It was only after he realized the importance of English that he missed the opportunity to study abroad. D. Not until he realized the importance of English did he miss the opportunity to study abroad. Question 47: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the man out of danger. A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man out of danger. B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger. C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of danger. D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 48: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss. A. inappropriate B. it C. because D. the Question 49: There were inconsiderate amounts of money wasted on large building projects. A. inconsiderate B. amounts C. wasted D. building Question 50: As far as I’m concerned, it was the year 2007 that Vietnam joined the World Trade Organization. A. concerned B. the year 2007 C. that D. The THE END! PRACTICE TEST 52 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions Question 1: Many hundred years ago , there were many villages and little towns in England. A. ago B. were C. little D. in Question 2: Alike light waves , microwaves may be reflected and concentrated elements. A. Alike B. waves C. may be D. concentrated Question 3: Many successful film directions are former actors who desire to expand their experience in the film industry. A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Although the “lie detectors” are being used by governments, police departments, and businesses that all want guaranteed ways of detecting the truth, the results are not always accurate. Lie detectors are properly called emotion detectors, for their aim is to measure bodily changes that contradict what a person says. The polygraph machine records changes in heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, and the electrical activity of the skin (galvanic skin response, or GSR). In the first part of the polygraph test, you are electronically connected to the machine and asked a few neutral questions (“What is your name?”, “Where do you live?”). Your physical reactions serve as the standard (baseline) for evaluating what comes next. Then you are asked a few critical questions among the neutral ones (“When did you rob the bank?”). The assumption is that if you are guilty, your body will reveal the truth, even if you try to deny it. Your heart rate, respiration, and GSR will change abruptly as you respond to the incriminating questions. That is the theory; but psychologists have found that lie detectors are simply not reliable. Since most physical changes are the same across all emotions, machines cannot tell whether you are feeling guilty, angry, nervous, thrilled, or revved up form an exciting day. Innocent people may be tense and nervous about the whole procedure. They may react physiologically to a certain word (“bank”) not because they robbed it, but because they recently bounced a check. In either case the machine will record a “lie”. The reverse mistake is also common. Some practiced liars can lie without flinching, and others learn to beat the machine by tensing muscles or thinking about an exciting experience during neutral questions. Question 4: What is the main idea of this passage? A. Lie detectors distinguish different emotions B. Physical reaction reveal guilty Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. Lie detectors make innocent people nervous D. How lie detectors are used and their reliability Question 5: According to the test, polygraph ________. A. measure a person’s thoughts B. always reveal the truth about a person C. make guilty people angry D. record a person’s physical reactions Question 6: According to the passage, what kind of questions is asked on the first part of the polygraph test? A. incriminating B. critical C. emotional D. unimportant Question 7: The word “ones” in paragraph 1 refers to ______. A. questions B. reactions C. standards D. evaluations Question 8: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to ______. A. the question B. your body C. the assumption D. the truth Question 9: The word “assumption” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced with _____. A. belief B. faith C. statement D. imagining Question 10: This passage was probably written by a specialist in _____. A. sociology B. anthropology C. criminal psychology D. mind reading Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to the following questions Question 11: The 26th Annual Meeting of the Asia-Pacific Parliamentary Forum (APPF) ______ in Hanoi, our beautiful and peaceful capital city, from January 18th to 21st, 2018 A. was held B. is held C. is being held D. will be held Question 12: The Meeting of Women Parliamentarians, a part of APPF-26, contributed to strengthening the presence and ______ of women parliamentarians and helping to forge a network connecting them together. A. influenced B. influencing C. influence D. influential Question 13: National Assembly Chairwoman Nguyen Thi Kim Ngan said that ______, a large number of women and girls in various areas in the world are being discriminated and subjected to violence. A. though positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment B. despite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment C. in spite positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment D. in spite of positive outcomes in gender equality and women empowerment Question 14: In the quarter-final showdown with Malaysia, Cho Jae-wan (Korea Republic) wrote himself into the history books when he found the back of the net just 11.35 seconds into the game – the second ______ goal in any AFC tournament. A. latest B. worst C. best D. fastest Question 15: Bob was absent; he _____ sick again. A. shouldn’t have been B. mustn’t have been C. must have been D. should have been Question 16: Could you ______ me a lift into town? A. give B. get C. do D. make Question 17: The lack of family support and the committee’s concerns around the design of the proposed statue of the former British Prime Minister, Margaret Thatcher, outside UK Parliament were the key determining factors in ________ this application. A. breaking up B. turning down C. taking off D. putting up Question 18: I think we’ve come in for a lot of _____ about the impatience of some shop assistants. A. compliments B. problems C. complaints D. criticism Question 19: Britain’s Prime Minister Theresa May was the first world leader ______ Trump at the White House after his inauguration last year. A. visited B. visiting C. visit D. to visit Question 20: South African anti-apartheid veteran Winnie Madikizela-Mandela, ex-wife of late President Nelson Mandela, _______ in and out of hospital since 2016 for back and knee surgery. A. has been being B. has been C. was D. had been Question 21: Vietnam reached the semi-finals of the AFC U23 Championship 2018 with a penalty shootout win _________ Iraq on Saturday, January 20th , 2018. A. over B. with C. against D. in Question 22: He opened the letter without ______ to read the address on the envelope. A. caring B. worrying C. concerning D. bothering Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Pollution is a threat to many species on Earth, but sometimes it can cause species to thrive. Such is the case with Pfiesteria piscicida. A one-celled creature called a dinoflagellate, Pfiesteria inhabits warm coastal areas and river mouths, especially along the eastern United States. Although scientists have found evidence of Pfiesteria in 3,000-year-old sea floor sediments and dinoflagellates are thought to be one of the oldest life forms on earth, few people took notice of Pfiesteria. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Lately, however, blooms – or huge, dense populations – of Pfiesteria are appearing in coastal waters, and in such large concentrations the dinoflagellates become ruthless killers. The blooms emit powerful toxins that weaken and entrap fish that swim into the area. The toxins eventually cause the fish to develop large bleeding sores through which the tiny creatures attack, feasting on blood and flesh. Often the damage is astounding. During a 1991 fish kill, which was blamed on Pfiesteria on North Carolina’s Neuse River, nearly one billion fish died and bulldozers had to be brought in to clear the remains from the river. Of course, such events can have a devastating effect on commercially important fish, but that is just one way that Pfiesteria causes problems. The toxins it emits affect human skin in much the same way as they affect fish skin. Additionally, fisherman and others who have spent time near Pfiesteria blooms report that the toxins seem to get into the air, where once inhaled they affect the nervous system, causing severe headaches, blurred vision, nausea, breathing difficulty, short-term memory loss and even cognitive impairment. For a while, it seemed that deadly Pfiesteria blooms were a threat only to North Carolina waters, but the problem seems to be spreading. More and more, conditions along the east coast seem to be favorable for Pfiesteria. Researchers suspect that pollutants such as animal waste from livestock operations, fertilizers washed from farmlands and waste water from mining operations have probably all combined to promote the growth of Pfiesteria in coastal waters. Question 23: What is true of Pfiesteria? A. It seems to flourish in the presence of certain pollutants B. It has been a menace to fish and humans for over 3000 years. C. It is the oldest life form on earth D. In large concentrations, it poses a threat to fish but not to humans. Question 24: What is the main function of the toxins emitted by the dinoflagellates? A. They are quick-acting poisons that kill fish within minutes. B. They weaken the fish just long enough for the tiny creatures to attack C. They damage the nervous system of potential predators. D. They cause fish to develop wounds on which creatures feed. Question 25: The word “astounding” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. continual B. incredible C. spectacular D. apprehensive Question 26: What were bulldozers used for in the Neuse River? A. cleaning up the sediment at the bottom of the river B. excavating holes to bury the dead fish C. scooping up the vast number of dead fish in the water D. removing the huge amount of Pfiesteria from the river Question 27: According to the paragraph 2, what will NOT happen if one breathes the toxic air? A. vomiting B. visual impairments C. circulatory difficulty D. terrible headaches Question 28: What is especially worrying about Pfiesteria blooms? A. Conditions are becoming increasingly favourable for their spread B. They are fatal to humans who come in contact with them C. They have devastated the fishing industry in U.S coastal waters D. Researchers have no idea as to exactly what causes them Question 29: All of the following are true, according to the passage, EXCEPT _____ A. Pfiesteria caused the death of about one billion fish in the late 1990s B. animal and chemical waste from farmlands, livestock and mining operations may contribute to the expansion of Pfiesteria C. Pfiesteria was not commonly noticed despite scientific findings D. the toxic subtances emitted by Pfiesteria have a similar effect on human and fish skins Question 30: In which environment would you NOT expect a Pfiesteria bloom to develop? A. a marsh which absorbs waste water from a nearby pig farm B. a river located near a rock quarry C. a cool mountain lake teeming with fish D. a river that flows through rich farmland Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions Question 31: A. author B. electronics C. exercise D. candidate Question 32: A. maintain B. disturb C. offer D. announcement Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 33: No vehicle weighing over 3.5 tons is allowed on this bridge, according to traffic signs placed at both ends of the structure A. corruption B. construction C. connection D. confusion Question 34: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. comparatively B. absolutely C. relevantly D. almost Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 35: The Ministry of Education and training of Vietnam has declared a decree on the new educational program paving the way for foreign educational co-operation and investment. A. initiating B. creating C. ending D. forming Question 36: If we use robots instead of humans, many people may be out of work A. employed B. jobless C. inemployed D. unemployed Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 37: I have never listened to jazz music before A. This is the first jazz music I listen to B. This is the first time I listen to jazz music C. This is the first time I have listened to jazz music D. This is the first time I listened to jazz music Question 38: Noisy as the hotel was, they stayed there. A. Much as the hotel was noisy, they stayed there B. In spite of the noisy hotel and they liked it C. Despite the hotel was noisy, they stayed there D. Although the noisy hotel, they stayed there Question 39: “I’ll let you know the answer by the end of this week”, Tom said to Janet A. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week B. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week C. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week D. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 40: A. major B. native C. sailor D. applicant Question 41: A. circles B. symptoms C. areas D. complaints Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks It can take a long time to become successful in your chosen field, however talented you are. One thing you have to be aware of is that you will face criticism along the way. The world is full of people who would rather say something negative than positive. If you’ve made up your (42) ______ to achieve a certain goal, such as writing a novel, don’t let the negative criticism of others prevent you from reaching your target, and let the constructive criticism have a positive effect on your work. If someone says you’re totally in the (43)_______ of talent, ignore them. That’s negative criticism. If, (44)________, someone advises you to revise your work and gives you a good reason for doing so, you should consider their suggestions carefully. There are many film stars who were once out of work . There are many famous novelists who made a complete mess of their first novel – or who didn’t, but had to keep on approaching hundreds of publishers before they could get it (45)_______. Being successful does depend on luck, to a certain extent. But things are more likely to (46)_______ well if you persevere and stay positive. Question 42: A. thought B. mind C. idea D. brain Question 43: A. absentee B. missing C. lack D. shortage Question 44: A. hence B. however C. whereas D. otherwise Question 45: A. publishes B. published C. to publish D. publish Question 46: A. deal with B. turn out C. sail through D. come into Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: Mai and Lan are talking about Mai’s new house. - Lan: “What a lovely house you have!” - Mai: “________________” A. I’m glad you like it. Thanks. B. Thanks. It must be very expensive. C. You’re welcome. D. Certainly! Question 48: Lora is talking to Maria about her failure at applying for a job. - Lora: “__________” - Maria: “Never mind, better luck next time” A. I have a lot on my mind. B. I’ve broken your precious vase. C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 49: Vietnam defeated Qatar in AFC U23 Championship semifinal. It marked a new episode in Vietnam’s football history. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. Vietnam defeated Qatar in AFC U23 Championship semifinal and marked a new episode in Vietnam’s football history. B. Vietnam defeated Qatar in AFC U23 Championship semifinal that it marked a new episode in Vietnam’s football history. C. Vietnam defeated Qatar in AFC U23 Championship semifinal then it marked a new episode in Vietnam’s football history. D. Vietnam defeated Qatar in AFC U23 Championship semifinal, which marked a new episode in Vietnam’s football history. Question 50: They didn’t have the right visas. They couldn’t legally re-enter Thailand. A. If they had had the right visas, they could have re-entered Thailand legally. B. Had they had the right visas, they couldn’t re-entered Thailand legally. C. Were they to have the right visas, they could re-entered Thailand legally. D. If they had the right visas, they could re-entere Thailand legally. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 53 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. none B. dozen C. youngster D. home Question 2: A. derived B. faced C. inclined D. hired Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. employ B. immune C. powder D. evoke Question 4: A. competent B. computer C. compliance D. commute Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks. Question 5: We’re over the _______! Who wouldn’t be? We’ve just won £1 million! A. planet B. clouds C. stars D. moon Question 6: It’s very cold in here. Do you mind if I _______ the heating? A. put off B. put on C. put up with D. put down with Question 7: Could you please _______ me to the nearest post office? A. explain B. point C. indicate D. direct Question 8: He is very ________ of his conduct and promises never to behave like that again. A. sorry B. miserable C. ashamed D. guilty Question 9: Noisy parties are really not my _______. A. scene B. liking C. idea D. preference Question 10: Of course you’ll pass. You write well and you have an excellent _______ of the subject. A. grip B. seizure C. grasp D. embrace Question 11: Gardeners transplant bushes and flowers by moving them from one place to _______. A. other B. others C. another D. each other Question 12: Candles _______ from beeswax burn with a very clean flame. A. are made B. made C. making D. which made Question 13: A few natural elements exist in _______ that they are rarely seen in their natural environments. A. such small quantities B. so small quantities C. very small quantities D. small quantity Question 14: I’d rather you ________ anything about the garden until the weather improves. A. don’t make B. didn’t make C. don’t do D. didn’t do Question 15: The exhibition is free for all students. We ______ pay any fee. A. must not B. should not C.had better not D. haven’t got to Question 16: As towns grow, they tend to destroy the surrounding ______ areas. A. rural B. commercial C. land D. urban Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 17: A: “I’m very sorry for letting you wait for so long.” – B: “ _______” A. Don’t apologize. I’ve just arrived here. B. It doesn’t matter. Thank you. C. You’ve welcome. D. My pleasure. Don’t worry about it. Question 18: “Would you like me to send this package for you?” – B: “______” A. That would be nice. Any problems? B. Yes, please, if you don’t mind. C. I’m sorry, but here you are. D. No, thanks. I’m really busy. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 19: I told you clearly and definitely not to write your answers in pencil, Tom! A. considerably B. thoroughly C. altogether D. specifically Question 20: The washing machine I have just bought is very simple to use. A. boring B. interesting C. easy D. difficult Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 21: The loss of his journals had cuased him even more sorrow than his retirement form the military six years earlier. A. grief B. joy C. comfort D. sympathy Question 22: As a newspaper reporter, she always wanted to get information at first hand. A. indirectly B. directly C. easily D. slowly Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following question. Question 23: I really regert that you haven’t told me about her family. A. If only you would tell me about her family. B. If only I didn’t regret that you hadn’t told me about her family. C. If only you had told me about her family. D. If only you hadn’t told me about her family. Question 24: I don’t think Max broke your vase because he wasn’t here then. A. Max wouldn’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then. B. Max was likely to break your vase because he wasn’t here then. C. Max can’t have broken your vase because he wasn’t here then. D. Max wasn’t able to break your vase because he wasn’t here then. Question 25: “ I say again. This is the most important assignment of the semester”, the professor said. A. The professor confirmed that that was the most important assighnment of the semester. B. The professor informed that that was the most important assighnment of the semester. C. The professor threatened that that was the most important assighnment of the semester. D. The professor replied that that was the most important assighnment of the semester. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the followinging questions. Question 26: My uncle is a businessman. He was ranked the wealthiest of the country. A. My uncle is a businessman., ranking the weathiest of the country. B. A businessman, my uncle, was ranked the the weathiest of the country. C. My uncle, a businessman, was ranked the weathiest of the country. D. A businessman, who is my uncle, was ranked the weathiest of the country. Question 27: There were over two hundred people at Carl’s trial. Most of them believed that he was not guilty of the crime. A. The majority of the more than 200 people at Carl’s trial didn’t think that he had committed the crime. B. Carl had not committed the crime, and so more than 200 people came to the trail to show their support. C. Over 200 people coming to Carl’s trial must have influenced the fact that he was not found guilty of the crime. D. When it was announced that Carl had been found not guilty of the crime, there were over 200 people in the audience at his trial. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: That these students have improved their grades because of their participation in the test review class. A. That B. have improved C. because of D. their participation in Question 29: Pure sodium immediately combines with oxygen when is exposed to air. A. immediately B. combines C. is exposed D. to air. Question 30: The progress made in spacetravel for the early 1960s is remarkable. A. progress B. made C. in space D. for Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that best fits each of the blanks. HOLIDAYS We've just come back exhausted after a two-week holiday in France. We were really stupid. On the last day we drove non-stop from Marseille to Calais- we should have(31)_____ our journey in Lyon or Paris. As if that wasn't enough, the sea was so rough in the English Channel that the (32) _____ took three hours instead of one and a half. Next year we've decided we're going on a cheap (33) _____ holiday to Italy. It sounds marvellous- the cost of the flight, the hotel and all our meals are (34) _____ in the price. While we're in Rome we'll be going on a guided tour of the Coliseum. The last time I was in Italy, I was on a business trip - I can't say I saw many of the famous tourist (35) _____ on that occasion Question 31: A. stopped B. paused C. broken D. interrupted Question 32: A. expedition B. crossing C. cruise D. passage Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 33: A. party B. package C. overall D. inclusive Question 34: A. included B. involved C. contained D. combined Question 35: A. views B. visit C. scenes D. sights Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-sobright child. After all, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade! Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning. In our classroom, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups; this gives them the opportunity to learn to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with the personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes the work on individual tasks and assignments, they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced works; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal. Question 36: The phrase "held back" in paragraph 1 means_________. A. made to lag behind B. prevented from advancing C. forced to study in lower classes D. made to remain in the same classes Question 37: The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils’ _________ A. intellectual abilities B. learning ability and communicative skills C. personal and social skills D. total personality Question 38: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Pupils also learn how to participate in teaching activities B. Group work gives pupils the opportunity to learn to work together with others C. Pupils also learn to develop their reasoning ability D. Group work provides the pupils with the opportunity to learn to be capable organizers Question 39: The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to ______. A. offer advice on the proper use of the school library B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class C. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities D. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. There is no fixed method in teaching pupils to develop themselves to the full B. Development of pupils as individuals is not the aim of group work C. It’s not good for a bright child to find out that he performs worst in a mixed-ability class D. Pupils cannot develop in the best way if they are streamed into classes of different intellectual abilities Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching? A. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class B. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own C. Formal class teaching is the important way to give pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library. D. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development Question 42: According to the passage, “streaming pupils” ______ A. is the act of putting pupils into class according to their academic abilities B. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience C. is quite discouraging D. will help the pupils learn best Question 43: According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because _______ A. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems B. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils C. its aim at developing the children’s total personality D. formal class teaching is appropriate Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10 hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet. The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted. Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter Question 45: According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly? A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars Question 46: According to the passage, the Great Red Spot________. A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years Question 47: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________. A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color Question 48: The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent Question 49: According to the passge, which of the following is NOT true? A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planest in the solar system. B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long. C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally. D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become other Great Red Spots. Question 50: The passage was probably taken from________ A. an art journal B. a geology magazine C. a high school textbook D. an archaeology book THE END! PRACTICE TEST 54 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. about B. shout C. wounded D. count Question 2: A. houses B. brashes C. hates D. places Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. danger B. invite C. enact D. enjoy Question 4: A. available B. depression C. education D. majority Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: You may note down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job. A. put down B. hold down C. draw down D. jot down Question 6: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost. A. escalated B. erased C. threatened D. eradicated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: On the whole, the rescue mission was well executed. A. In fact B. In particular C. At once D. In general Question 8: It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed. A. wise B. generous C. modest D. arrogant Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 9: What happened in that city were a reaction from city workers, including firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their jobs. A. What happened B. were C. including D. their Question 10: The Alaskan malamute, used extensively for pulling sleds, is closely related about the wolf. A. used B. for pulling C. closely D. about Question 11: In order to avoid to make mistakes, take your time and work carefully. A. In order to B. to make C. take D. carefully Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Who was the first person ______ the South Pole? A. who reaches B. reaching C. to reach D. reached Question 13: Thank you very much. I haven’t been to_______party for ages. A. so enjoyable B. the so enjoyable C. so enjoyable a D. a so enjoyable Question 14: A skilled_______will help candidates feel relaxe D. A. interview B. interviewing C. interviewee D. interviewer Question 15: The government devalued the currency to try to revive the ______ economy. A. developed B. stagnant C. dynamic D. stable Question 16: Terry______ in three movies already. I think he’ll be a star some day. A. had appeared B. has appeared C. is appearing D. was appearing Question 17: Narcissus bulbs_______at least three inches apart and covered with about four inches of well-drained soil. A. should have been planted B. should be planting C. must plant D. should be planted Question 18: An endangered species is a species______ population is so small that it is in danger of becoming extinct. A. whose B. which C. what D. who Question 19: With this type of insurance, you’re buying ______ of mind. A. peace B. satisfaction C. calmness D. contentment Question 20: There was hardly_______ money left in the bank account. A. no more B. some C. no D. any Question 21: Learning English isn’t so difficult, once you get______it. A. down to B. get off C. get on D. down with Question 22: Mary hardly ever cooks, ______? A. did she B. didn’t she C. does she D. doesn't she Question 23: She has made an ______ for the job as a nursery teacher because she likes children. A. application B. applicating C. apply D. applicant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Tim: "Let me wash the vegetable while you're preparing the meat." - Linda: “______.” A. OK. Thank you very much. B. Good idea. I'll do it for you. C. Yes, please. But I can manage. D. No problem. Question 25: Sara: "How do you feel about his comment?" - Mary: “______.” A. Yes, it's a very good idea. B. I don't think he knew what he was saying. C. I'm afraid I disagree with you. D. If you ask me, I feel tired. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street. He stopped, (26)______ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it. This was the beginning of mobile phone (27)_______, more than 30 years ago. That man was Motorola's project manager, Martin Cooper, who was (28)______ his 34th birthday that day. The strange object was the first mobile phone, which was nicknamed "the shoe" because of its unusual (29)_______. Mr. Cooper had gone to New York to introduce the new phone. The first call he made was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T's research centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the radiophones for cars. "I called him and said that I was talking on a real mobile phone (30)_____ I was holding in my hand," said Cooper. "I don't remember what he said in reply, but I'm sure he wasn't happy." The quality of the call was very good, because although New York had only one base station at that time, it was being used by only one user - Martin Cooper. Question 26: A. pulled B. raised C. lifted D. rose Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 27: A. past B. times C. history D. story Question 28: A. making B. driving C. expecting D. celebrating Question 29: A. kind B. shape C. type D. symbol Question 30: A. that B. when C. as D. how Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities became manufacturing centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occupation. Among the earliest farmhouses in America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Generally they consisted of one large rectangular room on the ground floor, called a hall or great room and having a fireplace built into one of the walls, and a loft overhead. Sometimes a lean-to was attached alongside the house to store objects such as spinning wheels, firewood, barrels, and tubs. The furnishings in the great room were sparse and crudely built. Tabletops and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and often smoothed only on one side. Benches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be dismantled when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in one corner of the room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed nearby for children and elders, in the area called the inglenook. The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. However, by 1630 Plymouth Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By 1640, settlements had been built some distance from the original site. Villages began to emerge throughout Massachusetts and farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows brought light into homes and the furnishings and décor were more sophisticated. As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhouses appeared, from Swedish long-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Connecticut, Dutch-Flemish stone farmhouses in New York, and clapboard farmhouses in Pennsylvania. From Georgian characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses of varied architectural styles and building functions populated the landscape of the new frontier. Question 31: The main idea of the passage is A. The history of the American farmhouse B. Where immigrants settled in America C. How to build an American farmhouse D. life in Plymouth Colony Question 32: Which of the following is not mentioned as part of the furnishings in farmhouses? A. Rocking chair B. Bench C. Trestle- based table D. Six - board chest Question 33: According to the passage the earliest farmhouses were built in A. Delaware Valley B. Massachusetts C. Connecticut D. Pennsylvania Question 34: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to A. trestle base B. space C. table D. chest board Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that A. the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry B. sophisticated tools were available to the early immigrants C. cloth was important from England D. the extended family lived together in the farmhouse Question 36: The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American A. urban planning B. farming C. architecture D. immigration Question 37: The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with A. proceed B. settle C. come out D. appear Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920's and 1930's, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters. In the 1940's and 1950's, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage. You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes - the blueprints for each of the enzymes - and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases - diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibilliondollar industry. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the funtions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later. Question 38: What is the main topic of the passage? A. The microbe hunters. B. The potential of genetic engineering. C. The progress of modern medical research. D. The discovery of enzymes. Question 39: The word “incriminated’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. blamed B. eliminated C. investigated D. produced Question 40: Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet? A. Tuberculosis B. Cholera C. Cystique fibroses D. Pell Agra Question 41: The word “strived” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. studied B. tried C. experimented D. failed Question 42: How do vitamins influence health? A. They protect the body from microbes B. They are broken down by cells to produce energy C. They keep food from spoiling D. They are necessary for some enzymes to function Question 43: The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. go to furthest B. lighten to load C. conquer territory D. receive the most attention Question 44: The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be A. the functions of the brain B. inherited diseases C. the operation of vitamins D. the structure of genes Question 45: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Most diseases are caused by defective genes B. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades. C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters. D. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence which has the same meaning as the original one. Question 46: They bought a gift that was very expensive for their son. A. They gave their son a gift that was very expensive. B. Their son bought an expensive gift for his birthday. C. The gift was so expensive that they didn’t buy it for their son. D. Although the gift was inexpensive, they didn’t buy it for their son. Question 47: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money. A. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully. B. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money. C. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money. D. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s money. Question 48: He wants his wife to quit her job and look after their children. A. He would like his wife to stop working and looking after their children. B. He wants to quit his job and his wife look after their children. C. He would like his wife to continue working in spite of looking after their children. D. He would like his wife to stop working and look after their children. Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence which best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I owed Bill a favor. I agreed to help him. A. If I hadn’t owed Bill a favor, I would have agreed to help him. B. It was only because I owed Bill a favor that I agreed to help him. C. Although I owed Bill a favor, I agreed to help him. D. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money. Question 50: She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either. A. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party. B. Neither we nor she want to go to their party. C. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party. D. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party. THE END!
Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 55 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions Question 1: Only their own mother can tell Simon and Mike apart. A. No one other than their own mother can separate Simon and Mike. B. Simon and Mike bear some resemblance to each other. C. It's very difficult to distinguish Simon and Mike. D. Except for their own mother, no one can talk to Simon and Mike. Question 2: "How beautiful is the dress you have just bought!" Peter said to Mary. A. Peter promised to buy Mary a beautiful dress. B. Peter said thanks to Mary for her beautiful dress. C. Peter asked Mary how she had just bought her beautiful dress. D. Peter complimented Mary on her beautiful dress. Question 3: Those who are riding a motorbike are not allowed to take off their helmet. A. People must never take their helmet off while they are riding a motorbike. B. Those who are wearing a helmet are not allowed to ride a motorbike. C. It is the helmet that one needn't wear when he is riding a motorbike D. You should not wear a helmet when you are riding a motorbike. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 4: Exemplification is always necessary when you are addressing a younger audience. A. illustration B. variation C. simplification D. exaggeration Question 5: When heated to temperatures above 1250 degrees Centigrade, clay fuses and becomes pottery or stoneware. A. melts together B. steams up C. breaks down D. burns off Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: Steve______his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question. A. threw away B. threw in C. threw off D. threw out Question 7: By the time Brown's daughter graduates,_______retired. A. he'll have B. he C. he'll being D. he has Question 8: Nobody likes his behavior,______? A. doesn’t he B. do they C. don't they D. does he Question 9: ______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat. A. Were you arrived B. If you arrived C. If you hadn't arrived D. Had you arrived Question 10: After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their ______ down for a while. A. hearts B. hair C. souls D. heads Question 11: Extinction means a situation ______ a plant, an animal or a way of life stops existing. A. to which B. for which C. on which D. in which Question 12: Making mistake is all ________ of growing up. A. bits and bobs B. odds and ends C. part and parcel D. top and bottom Question 13: The judge ______ murderer to a lifetime imprisonment. A. prosecuted B. sentenced C. convicted D. accused Question 14: When my children _____ their toys, I donated them to a charity. A. outnumbered B. outworn C. outlasted D. outgrew Question 15: The song has______been selected for the 2018 World Cup, Russia. A. office B. officer C. officially D. official Question 16: Alice said: “That guy is______ gorgeous. I wish he would ask rne out.” A. dead-centre B. drop shot C. jumped-up D. drop-dead Question 17: This factory produced_______motorbikes in 2008 as in the year 2006. A. as many as twice B. as twice many C. twice as many D. as twice as many Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 18: The continental shelf is the shadow area of the ocean floor that is closest to the continents. A. The continental shelf B. the shadow area C. ocean floor D. closest to Question 19: She had so many luggage that there was not enough room in the car for it. A. so many B. was C. enough room D. it Question 20: Her application for a visa was turned down not only because it was incomplete and incorrectly filled out but also because it was written in pencil. A. for a visa B. down C. incomplete D. pencil Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 31: A. energetic B. epidemic C. initiative D. economic Question 32: A. expert B. mature C. channel D. secret Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 23 to 30 The Forbidden City is the former imperial palace in the center of Beijing, China. Construction began in 1406, and the emperor's court officially moved in by 1420. The Forbidden City got its name because most people were barred from entering the 72-hectare site, surrounded by walls. Even government officials and the imperial family were permitted only limited access. Only the emperor could enter any section at will. The architecture of the Forbidden City conforms rigidly to traditional Chinese principles. All buildings within the walls follow a north-south line and the most important ones face south to honor the sun. The designers arranged the other buildings, and the ceremonial spaces between them, to impress all visitors with the great power of the Emperor, while reinforcing the insignificance of the individual. This architectural concept was carried out to the smallest detail. For example, the importance of a building was determined not only by its height or width but also by the style of its roof and the quantity of statuettes placed on the roof’s ridges. In recognition of the importance of its unparalleled architecture, UNESCO added the palace to its World Heritage List in 1987. Today, visitors from all over the world do not wait for an imperial invitation to walk about this palace, now a museum of imperial art. One of the most impressive landmarks of the Forbidden City is the Meridian Gate, the formal entrance to the southern side of the Forbidden City. The gate, with its auxiliary wings on either side of the entryway, is 38 meters high at its roof ridge. When you stand in front of this majestic structure, you understand how awed people felt when they stood there listening to imperial proclamations. As you walk through the gate, you come into a large courtyard, 140 meters long and 210 meters wide. Running through the courtyard is the Golden River, which is crossed by five parallel white marble bridges. These bridges lead to the Gate of Supreme Harmony, which, in turn, leads to the heart of the Forbidden City. At the northernmost end of the Forbidden City is the Imperial Garden, which is totally different from the rest of the compound. Instead of rigid formality, you see a seemingly spontaneous arrangement of trees, fishponds, flowerbeds, and sculpture. Here is the place of relaxation for the emperor. Question 23: According to the passage, what do the bridges over the Golden River lead to? A. The Meridian gate B. The Gate of Supreme Harmony C. The Imperial Gardens D. The center of Beijing Question 24: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word 'unparalleled' as used in paragraph 3? A. high quality found nowhere else B. at an angle from the main line C. careless of small details in design D. partially designed in a foreign country Question 25: From the passage, it is implied that the main entrance area to the Forbidden City is A. not very impressive B. surrounded by three tall walls C. decorated with statuettes D. painted gold and green Question 26: Which word(s) does the word 'its' refer to in paragraph 3? A. Architecture B. World Heritage List C. Palace D. UNESCO Question 27: Which word or phrase is closest in meaning to the word "spontaneous"? A. Without thinking B. Unique C. Without planning D. Strange Question 28: From the passage, it can be inferred that A. Chinese architects borrowed ideas from many different countries B. the garden of the Forbidden City was laid out in a strict, rectangular pattern. C. the design of the Forbidden City is dull and colorless. D. the architecture of the Forbidden City exemplifies traditional Chinese values. Question 29: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “proclamations”? A. Poetry written for the emperor. B. Music composed for public ceremonies. C. Speeches encouraging soldiers to fight. D. Official public announcements. Question 30: Which sentence in the first paragraph explains who could go anywhere in the Forbidden City at any time? A. Sentence 2 B. Sentence 5 C. Sentence 4 D. Sentence 3 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37. People have been donating blood since the early twentieth century to help accident victims and patients undergoing surgical procedures. Usually a pint of whole blood is donated, and it is then divided into platelets, white blood cells, and red blood cells. People can donate blood (for red blood cells) about once every two months. Transfusing the blood from the donor to the recipient is straightforward. It involves taking the blood from a donor’s arm vein by means of a hypodermic syringe. The blood flows through a plastic tube to a collection bag or bottle that contains Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose sodium citrate, which prevents the blood from clotting. When the blood is given to a patient, a plastic tube and hypodermic needle are connected to the recipient's arm. The blood flows down from the container by gravity. This is a slow process and may last as long as 2 hours to complete the infusion of blood into the recipient. The patient is protected from being infected during the transfusion. Only sterile containers, tubing, and needles are used, and this helps ensure that transfused or stored blood is not exposed to disease causing bacteria. Negative reactions to transfusions are not unusual. The recipient may suffer an allergic reaction or be sensitive to donor leukocytes. Some may suffer from an undetected red cell incompatibility. Unexplained reactions are also fairly common. Although they are rare, other causes of such negative reactions include contaminated blood, air bubbles in the blood, overloading of the circulatory system through administration of excess blood, or sensitivity to donor plasma or platelets. Today, hospitals and blood banks go to great lengths to screen alt blood donors and their blood. All donated blood is routinely and rigorously tested for diseases, such as HIV, hepatitis B, and syphilis. When the recipient is a newborn or an infant, the blood is usually irradiated to eliminate harmful elements. Donated blood is washed, and the white blood cells and platelets removed. Storing the blood sometimes requires a freezing process. To freeze the red blood cells, a glycerol solution is added. To unfreeze the, the glycerolis removed. The ability to store blood for long periods has been a boon to human health. Question 31: All of the following are mentioned as potential negative reactions to transfusion EXCEPT A. Sensitivity to donor leukocytes B. Air bubbles in the blood C. Allergies D. Red-cell incompatibility Question 32: What can the phrase "go to great length" best replaced by? A. irradiated B. rigorously C. routinely D. removed Question 33: According to the passage, how often can people donate blood for red blood cells? A. Every four months B. Every three month C. Every two months D. Every month Question 34: Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about blood transfused to infants and newborns? A. It is treated with radiant energy. B. It is not treated differently from adults. C. It is not dangerous for children. D. It is rigorously tested as blood for adults. Question 35: The word "it" refers t A. surgical procedures B. accident victims C. a pint of whole blood D. surgery patients Question 36: What answer choice is closest in meaning to the word “undetected”? A. not illustrated B. not captured C. not found D. not wanted Question 37: What does the author imply in the passage? A. Motoring blood benefits mankind. B. Clotting cannot be prevented. C. Freezing blood destroys platelets. D. Transfusing blood is a dangerous process. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 38 to 42. Working as a novelist is not really a career like being a doctor or a scientist. Although a fewwell-known ones, like Harry Potter author J. K. Rowling, have become wealthy, most writers find it difficult even to make a living from their book sales. Novels take a long time towrite, and authors can get into financial (38) _____ if they don’t have money coming in regularly from another job. But for those determined to write novels, it is without (39)______ one of the most enjoyable kinds of work to do. The writer has to be creative, thinking up completely new stories, and (40) _____, meaning they put all their time and effort into their work. They also need to be able to cope in a crisis, as nobody else can write their book for them. For this, a good sense of (41)______ often helps. Or the thought that maybe their novel might one day be turned into a film and become a Hollywood (42) _____! Question 38: A. problem B. trouble C. upset D. worry Question 39: A. difficulty B. suspicion C. thinking D. doubt Question 40: A. deliberate B. delivered C. decided D. dedicated Question 41: A. hoping B. humor C. smiling D. joking Question 42: A. best-seller B. attraction C. blockbuster D. victory Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 43: The situation seems to be changing minute by minute. A. from time to time B. time after time C. again and again D. very slowly Question 44: Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges. A. containing too many technical details B. very similar C. completely different D. very complicated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 45: Liz and Laura is going shopping together. Liz: "Look! This sweater is beautiful." Laura: “______?” A. Why not trying it on B. Why not trying on it C. Why not try it on D. Why not try on it Question 46: Anna is seeing Bill off at the airport. Anna: "_______" Bill: "I will." A. I'll miss you much. B. Give my best wishes to your parents. C. Have a nice trip! D. Wish you a happy journey. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 47: A. promised B. conserved C. destroyed D. proposed Question 48: A. champagne B. chaos C. scheme D. chemist Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: The government knows the extent of the problem. The government needs to take action soon. A. Knowing the extent of the problem, the government needs to take action soon. B. The government knows the extent of the problem whereas it needs to take action soon. C. The government knows the extent of the problem so that it needs to take action soon. D. The government knows the extent of the problem or else it needs to take action soon. Question 50: He didn't notice anything. We might have been in trouble otherwise. A. If he noticed anything, we would be in trouble. B. If he hadn't noticed anything, we couldn't have been in trouble. C. If he had noticed anything, we could have been in trouble. D. If he noticed anything, we could have been in trouble. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 56 Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. finished B. promised C. escaped D. followed Question 2: A. gossip B. gentle C. gamble D. garage Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication Question 4: A. emerge B. organic C. belief D. medium Part 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: The world work is developing very quickly. If you don’t self-learn continuously, we will not_____social movements. A. put up with B. keep up with C. get on with D. deal with Question 6: She ______ on her computer for more than two hours when she decided to stop for a rest. A. has worked B. has been working C. was working D. had been working Question 7: The teacher recommended that Tom_____his composition as soon as possible. A. finish writing B. finished writing C. should finish to write D. finishes writing Question 8: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at_______it has come. A. the end B. last C. the moment D. present Question 9: I’m sorry I haven’t got any money. I’ve______my wallet at home. A. missed B. let C. left D. forgotten Question 10: There’s a list of repairs as long as_______. A. your arm B. a pole C. your arms D. a mile Question 11: I tried to talk to her, but she was as high as a______. A. kite B. house C. sky D. wall Question 12: Not only______to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil. A. seismology is used B. using seismology C. is seismology used D. to use seismology Question 13: ______advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the jo A. Had he been B. If he had C. Unless he had been D. Were he to be Question 14: The jury_____her compliments______her excellent knowledge of the subject. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. returned/ to B. paid/ to C. returned/ on D. paid / on Question 15: Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; ______,experts must perform detail tests to analyze soil specimens. A. therefore B. afterward C. so that D. however Question 16: John lost the______bicycle he bought last week and his parents were very angry with him because A. new beautiful blue Japanses B. beautiful blue Japanese new C. beautiful new blue Japanese D. Japanese beautiful new blue Part 4: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 17: Miranda still has trauma from the tragic accident, that took away her closest friend. A. has B. tragic C. that D. closest Question 18: The office furniture that was ordered last month have just arrived, but we’re not sure whether the manager likes it. A. that B. have just arrived C. whether D. likes Question 19: Don’t go up to your hotel room because the maid is making the beds, cleaning the bathroom, and vacuum the carpet. A. Don’t go B. because C. cleaning D. vacuum Part 5: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: After many years of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader. A. offering B. deciding C. requesting D. trying Question 21: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play. A. skillful B. perfect C. modest D. famous Part 6: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. A. happiness B. loss C. sadness D. pain and sorrow Question 23: They are launching a campaign to promote awareness of environmental issues. A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen Part 7: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: – “I passed the TOEFL test, Mom.” – “_______.” A. All right B. Well done C. Good luck D. Thank you Question 25: - Roger: “Wow! You look terrific in that new dress!” - Tina: “________” A. Oh, what a pity! B. I’m afraid so! C. Thank you. I’m glad you think so. D. Why dare you say so? Part 8: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: When the unemployment rale is high, the crime rate is usually also high. A. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. B. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. C. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. D. The unemployment rate and crime rate are both higher. Question 27: You will get a rise in salary after six months. A. Your salary will be risen after you work six months B. After six months your salary will be raised. C. You'll get your salary after six months' work. D. After six month your salary will be raised. Question 28: The captain said to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!” A. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately. B. The captain threatened his men to abandon the ship immediately. C. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately. D. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately. Part 9: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Mr.Smith is a professor. His car was stolen yesterday. A. His car was stolen yesterday, he is a professor. B. Mr.Smith, who his car was stolen yesterday, is a professor. C. Mr.Smith, who is a professor, his car was stolen yesterday. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. Mr.Smith, whose car was stolen yesterday, is a professor. Question 30: I never received the letter. It was sent to the wrong address. A. Since it was sent to the wrong address, I have never received the letter. B. I never received the letter because it was sent to the wrong address. C. I never received the letter because of sending to the wrong address. D. Sent to wrong address, I never received the letter. Part 10: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks New cycling schemes The County Council has decided to give a higher (31)______ to cycling and agreed a new strategy to guide the way ahead in East Sussex. Cycling is a (32) ______, healthy and environmentally friendly form of transport. It is (33) ______ to make it safer, more convenient, and to increase the proportion of journeys made by bicycle. Cycling is being encouraged both for utility purposes (such as journeys to work, school and the shops) and for recreation trips for exercise and enjoyment, including longer trips by tour. Recent cycle schemes carried out in conjunction with District Councils and other bodies (34) ______ the Brighton and Hove seafront route and the Cross Levels Way cycle route, in Eastbourne. Local people will be consulted as the strategy is implemented. The County council will work with local cycling and other groups, and a countrywide Cycling Forum will be formed to (35) ______ that all bodies concerned with cycling are in regular (36) ______ . The (37) ______ of the Cycling strategy are given in a leaflet, and a copy of the full strategy document can be seen in County Council Public Libraries. Question 31: A. advantage B. benefit C. priority D. income Question 32: A. low-cost B. dangerous C. shortcut D. high-speed Question 33: A. written B. convinced C. spoken D. intended Question 34: A. consist B. include C. improve D. participate Question 35: A. improve B. ensure C. maintain D. assert Question 36: A. basis B. touch C. contact D. account Question 37: A. rights B. cyclists C. objectives D. vehicles Part 11: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The days of the camera-toting tourist may be numbered. Insensitive travelers are being ordered to stop pointing their cameras and camcorders at reluctant local residents. Tour companies selling expensive trips to remote corners of the world, off the well-trodden path of the average tourist, have become increasingly irritated at the sight of the visitors upsetting locals. Now one such operator plans to ban clients from taking any photographic equipment on holidays. Julian Mathews is the director of Discovery Initiatives, a company that is working hand-in-hand with other organizations to offer holidays combining high adventure with working on environmental projects. His trips are not cheap; two weeks of white-water rafting and monitoring wildlife in Canada cost several thousand pounds. Matthews says he is providing 'holidays without guilt', insisting that Discovery Initiatives is not a tour operator but an environmental support company. Clients are referred to as 'participants' or 'ambassadors'. 'We see ourselves as the next step on from eco-tourism, which is merely a passive form. of sensitive travel - our approach is more proactive.' However, says Matthews, there is a price to pay. 'I am planning to introduce tours with a total ban on cameras and camcorders because of the damage they do to our relationships with local people. I have seen some horrendous things, such as a group of six tourists arriving at a remote village in the South American jungle, each with a video camera attached to their face. That sort of thing tears me up inside. Would you like somebody to come into your home and take a photo of you cooking? A camera is like a weapon; it puts up a barrier and you lose all the communication that comes through body language, which effectively means that the host communities are denied access to the so-called cultural exchange.' Matthews started organizing environmental holidays after a scientific expedition for young people. He subsequently founded Discovery Expeditions, which has helped support 13 projects worldwide. With the launch of Discovery Initiatives, he is placing a greater emphasis on adventure and fun, omitting in the brochure all references to scientific research. But his rules of conduct are strict. 'In some parts of the world, for instance, I tell people they should wear long trousers, not shorts, and wear a tie, when eating out. It may sound dictatorial, but I find one has a better experience if one is well dressed. I don't understand why people dress down when they go to other countries.' Matthews' views reflect a growing unease among some tour companies at the increasingly cavalier behaviour of well-heeled tourists. Chris Parrott, of Journey Latin America, says: 'We tell our clients that indigenous people are often shy about being photographed, but we certainly don't tell them not to take a camera. If they take pictures without asking, they may have tomatoes thrown at them.' He also reports that increasing numbers of clients are taking camcorders and pointing them indiscriminately at locals. He says: 'People with camcorders tend to be more Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose intrusive than those with cameras, but there is a payoff - the people they are filming get a tremendous thrill from seeing themselves played back on the viewfinder.' (Dethithpt.com) Crispin Jones, of Exodus, the overland truck specialist, says: 'We don't have a policy but, should cameras cause offence, our tour leaders will make it quite clear that they cannot be used. Clients tend to do what they are told. Earthwatch, which pioneered the concept of proactive eco-tourism by sending paying volunteers to work on scientific projects around the world, does not ban cameras, but operates strict rules on their use. Ed Wilson, the marketing director of the company, says: 'We try to impress on people the common courtesy of getting permission before using their cameras, and one would hope that every tour operator would do the same. People have to be not only environmentally aware but also culturally aware. Some people use the camera as a barrier; it allows them to distance themselves from the reality of what they see. I would like to see tourists putting their cameras away for once, rather than trying to record everything they see.' Question 38: The word ‘indigenous’ in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. timid B. native C. ignorant D. impoverished Question 39: Which of the following does Chris Parrott believe? A. Local people may react angrily towards tourists who use cameras B. Tourists are becoming more sensitive about their use of cameras. C. Camcorders always cause more trouble with local people than cameras D. Tourists are unlikely to agree to travel without their cameras. Question 40: In the first paragraph we learn that Discovery Initiatives A. organizes trips to places where few tourists go B. offers trips that no other tour company offers C. has decided to respond to its customers’ complaints D. has already succeeded in changing the kind of tourist it attracts Question 41: Which of the following best summarizes the view of Earthwatch? A. There are more problems concerning the use of cameras these days. B. Cameras enable people to be detached from places they visit. C. Too many tour operators ignore the problems caused by cameras. D. Most tourists realize when they have caused offence to local people. Question 42: The word ‘courtesy’ in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. dignity B. politeness C. nobility D. elite Question 43: What does Matthews say in paragraph 3 about cameras and camcorders? A. They prevent local people from learning about other societies. B. They encourage holidaymakers to behave unpredictably. C. They discourage holidaymakers from intruding on local people. D. They give local people a false impression of holidaymakers. Question 44: What is Matthews keen for clients to realize? A. that the brochure does not contain all the information they need. B. that certain behavior may spoil their enjoyment of a trip. C. that it is likely that they will not be allowed in certain places. D. that they may find certain local customs rather surprising. Part 12: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of evolution. Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out. However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be able to survive in new environments. Question 45: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The cause of the extinction of the dinosaurs B. The variety of species found in tropical rain forests C. The time required for species to adapt to new environments D. The impact of human activities on Earth’s ecosystems Question 46: The word “critical” is closest in meaning to A. complicated B. interesting C. negative D. essential Question 47: The author mentions the extinction of the dinosaurs in the 2nd paragraph to emphasize that A. the cause of the dinosaurs’ extinction is unknown B. actions by humans could not stop the irreversible process of a species’ extinction C. not all mass extinctions have been caused by human activity D. Earth’s climate has changed significantly since the dinosaurs’extinction Question 48: The word “jolting” is closest in meaning to A. shocking B. unknown C. illuminating D. predicted Question 49: The author mentions all of the following as examples of the effect of humans on the world’s ecosystems EXCEPT A. habitat destruction in wetlands B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species C. damage to marine ecosystems D. destruction of the tropical rain forests Question 50: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Human influence on ecosystems should not be a factor in determining public policy. B. Humans should be more conscious of the influence they have on ecosystems. C. The extinction of a few species is an acceptable consequence of human progress. D. Technology will provide solutions to problems caused by the destruction of ecosystems. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 57 Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In 1972. a century after the first national park in the United States was established at Yellowstone, legislation was passed to create the National Marine Sanctuaries Program. The intent of this legislation was to provide protection to selected coastal habitats similar to that existing for land areas designated as national parks. The designation of an areas a marine sanctuary indicates that it is a protected area, just as a national park is. People are permitted to visit and observe there, but living organisms and their environments may not be harmed or removed. The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is administered by the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, a branch of the United States Department of Commerce. Initially, 70 sites were proposed as candidates for sanctuary status. Two and a half decades later, only fifteen sanctuaries had been designated, with half of these established after 1978. They range in size from the very small (less than 1 square kilometer) fa*gatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary in American Samoa to the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in California, extending over 15,744 square kilometers. The National Marine Sanctuaries Program is a crucial part of new management practices in which whole communities of species, and not just individual species, are offered some degree of protection from habitat degradation and overexploitation. Only in this way can a reasonable degree of marine species diversity be maintained in a setting that also maintains the natural interrelationships that exist among these species. Several other types of marine protected areas exist in the United States and other countries. The National Estuarine Research Reserve System managed by the United States government, includes 23 designated and protected estuaries. Outside the United States, marine protected-area programs exist as marine parks, reserves and preserves. Over 100 designated areas exist around the periphery of the Caribbean Sea. Others range from the well-known Australian Great Barrer Reef Marine Park to lesser-known parks in countries such as Thailand and Indonesia, where tourism is placing growing pressures on fragile coral reef systems. As state, national, and international agencies come to recognize the importance of conserving marine biodiversity, marine projected areas whether as sanctuaries,parks, or estuarine reserves, will play an increasingly important role in preserving that diversity. Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Differences among marine parks, sanctuaries, and reserves B. Various marine conservation programs C. International agreements on coastal protection D. Similarities between land and sea protected environments Question 2: The word “administered” the passage is closest in meaning to …… A. managed B. recognized C. opposed D. justified Question 3: The passage mentions the Monterey Bay National Marine Sanctuary in paragraph 2 as an example of a sanctuary that …. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. is not well known B. covers a large area C. is smaller than the fa*gatele Bay National Marine Sanctuary D. was not originally proposed for sanctuary status Question 4: According to the passage, when was the National Marine Sanctuaries Program established? A. Before 1972 B. After 1987 C. One hundred years before national parks were established D. One hundred years after Yellowstone National Park was established Question 5: According to the passage, all of the following are achievements of the National Marine Sanctuaries Program EXCEPT ….. A. the discovery of several new marine organisms B. the preservation of connections between individual marine species C. the protection of coastal habitats D. the establishment of areas where the public can observe marine life Question 6: The word “periphery” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. depth B. landmass C. warm habitat D. outer edge Question 7: The passage mentions which of the following as a threat to marine areas outside the United States? A. Limitations in financial support B. The use of marine species as food C. Variability of the climate D. Increases in tourism Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks. Question 8: He is sleeping in his mother’s house this week as he …..his house painted. A. has B. is having C. had D. has had Question 9: John and Karen persuaded me ….. the conference. A. attending B. attended C. to attend D. to have attended Question 10: I think it’s ….. to take a few more pictures. A. enough light B. lightly enough C. light enough D. enough as light Question 11: Flower oils are ….. of the ingredients used in making perfume. A. among expensive B. among the most expensive C. being most expensive D. expensive Question 12: ….I heard the phone ring, I didn’t answer it. A. because B. Only if C. Even though D. Provided that Question 13: Ann has a lot of books, …… she has never read. A. most of that B. most of these C. most of which D. which most of them Question 14: My first school day was a ….. event in my life. A. memory B. memorized C. memorial D. memorable Question 15: If we didn’t …. any measures to protect whales, they would disappear forever. A. use B. make C. take D. do Question 16: People who take on a second job inevitably ….. themselves to greater stress. A. offer B. subject C. field D. place Question 17: One condition of this job is that you must be …… to work at weekends. A. available B. capable C. acceptable D. accessible Question 18: Could you lend me some money to ….. me over to the end of the month? A. hand B. tide C. get D. make Question 19: It is the …..of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather. A. height B. depth C. source D. matter Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: -“ Would you mind lending me you bike?” – “ ……” A. Yes. Here it is B. Not at all C. Great D. Yes, let’s Question 21: Havy: “Thanks for your help, Judy.” Judy: “……..” A. With all my heart B. Never remind me C. It’s my pleasure D. Wish you Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on the top of the first page to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4th century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution. In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind. These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at he beginning of the 20th century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They burned more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene. By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced. Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modern technology is not sufficiently versatile for a largescale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive. Question 22: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates Question 23: It can be inferred from the first paragraph that A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples B. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental Question 24: The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combination C. not derived from mineral deposits D. it could be converted to automobile fuel. Question 25: The phrase “the latter” refers to A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones Question 26: According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel? A. it was a concentrated source of energy. B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal. C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution. D. it could be converted to automobile fuel. Question 27: It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20th centurgy, energy was obtained primarily from A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass Question 28: The author of the passage implies that alternative sources of fuel are curently A. being used for consumption B. available in few locations C. being explored D. examined on a large scale Question 29: The word “prohibitive” is closest in meaning to A. prohibited B. provided C. too expensive D. too expedient Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the top of the first page to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 30: A. return B. market C. process D. office Question 31: A. abandon B. benefit C. constitute D. dialect Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 32: There are such many planets in the universe that we cannot count them. A. such B. in the C. cannot D. them. Question 33: The nitrogen makes up over 78 percent of the Earth’s atmosphere, the gaseous mass surrounding the planet. A. The nitrogen B. over C. percent of D. surrounding Question 34: Pateurization is the process of the heating milk to destroy disease-caused organisms and bacteria. A. the heating B. to destroy C. disease-caused D. bacteria. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the followinging questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 35: The soccer team knew they lost the match. They soon started to blame each other. A. Not only did the soccer team lose the match but they blamed each other as well B. No sooner had the soccer team started to blame each other than they knew they lost the match. C. As soon as they blamed each other, the soccer team knew they lost the match. D. Hardly had the soccer team known they lost the match when they started to blame each other. Question 36: We have been friends for years. It is quite easy to share secrets between us. A. Being friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets. B. We find it quite easy to share secrets, being friends for years. C. We have been friends so that it is quite easy to share secrets between us. D. Having been friends for years, we find it quite easy to share secrets between us. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Ever since it was first possible to make a real robot, people have been hoping for the invention of a machine that would do all the necessary jobs around the house. If boring and repetitive factory work could be (37) ________ by robots, why not boring and repetitive household chores too? For a long time the only people who really gave the problem their attention were amateur inventors And they came up against a major difficulty. That is, housework is actually very complex It has never been one job it has always been many. A factor robot (38) ________ one task endlessly until it is reprogrammed to do something else. It doesn’t run the whole factory. A housework robot on the other hand, has to do several different (39) ________ of cleaning and carrying jobs and also has to cope (40) ________ all the different shapes and positions of rooms, furniture, ornaments, cats and dogs. (41) ________, there have been some developments recently. Sensors are available to help the robot locate objects and avoid obstacles. We have the technology to produce the hardware. All that is missing the software- the programs that will operate the machine. Question 37: A. managed B. succeeded C. made D. given Question 38: A. carries over B. carries out C. carries off D. carries away Question 39: A. systems B. types C. ways D. methods Question 40: A. from B. with C. by D. for Question 41: A. However B. Therefore C. Besides D. Moreover Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 42: The shop assistant was totally bewildered by the customer’s behavior. A. disgusted B. puzzled C. angry D. upset Question 43: The works of such men as the English philosophers John Locke and Thomas Hobbes helped pave the way for academic freedom in the modern sense. A. terminate B. prevented C. enhanced D. incorporated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word in each of the following questions. Question 44: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East. A. expensive B. complicated C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate Question 45: His replies were inconsistent with his previous testimony. A. contradicted B. compatible C. enhanced D. incorporated Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentences that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following question. Question 46: If I hadn’t had so much work to do I would have gone to the movies. A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies. B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work. C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies. D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do. Question 47: “ Why don’t you get your hair cut, Gavin?” said Adam. A. Adam advised Gavin to cut his hair. B. Gavin was suggested to have a hair cut. C. It was suggested that Adam get Gavin’s haircut. D. Adam suggested that Gavin should have his hair cut. Question 48: Even if the job market is not stable, those who persist will be able to land jobs eventually. A. When it’s hard to find a job, jobs on land are even harder. B. Patient people will secure jobs even in an instable job market. C. Only persistent job seekers can find jobs. D. In land jobs are only available to persistent jobs applicants. Question 49: A. enjoyed B. ironed C. picked D. serve Question 50: A. stone B. top C. pocket D. modern THE END! Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 58 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. substantial B. applicant C. terrorist D. industry Question 2: A. stagnant B. tableland C. survive D. swallow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. derived B. required C. blamed D. coughed Question 4: A. islander B. alive C. vacancy D. habitat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: I’m afraid we no longer sell that model of laptop because we had_____a lot of complaints. A. so B. such C. enough D. too Question 6: Mrs. Jenkins was too ill to go out and pay her phone bill, and they’ve just cut her_____. She ought to complain! A. out B. off C. down D. up Question 7: There’s a lot______violent crime in this area than there used to be. A. fewer B. least C. less D. fewest Question 8: The move to a different environment had brought about a significant______in Mary’s state of mind. A. impact B. effect C. influence D. change Question 9: The party leader travelled the length and_____of the country in an attempt to spread his message. A. width B. distance C. diameter D. breadth Question 10: The amount Sarah earned was_______ on how much she sol d. A. dependence B. dependant C. dependent D. independent Question 11: They would ______ go by air than spend a week travelling by train. A. always B. rather C. prefer D. better Question 12: The party, _______ I was the guest of honour, was extremely enjoyable. A. at that B. at which C. to that D. to which Question 13: If only I_______play the guitar as well as you! A. would B. should C. could D. might Question 14: The windows are in ______ frames. A. circular huge wooden B. huge wooden circular C. wooden huge circular D. huge circular wooden Question 15: James was asking about a lot of personal things. I didn’t like______about my private life. A. asking B. being asked C. to ask D. to be asking Question 16: Vietnam U23 made not only Asia but also Europe keep a close eye on them. They _____ internationally. A. have made headlines B. had made headlines C. have done headlines D. did headlines Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions. Question 17: A US man with a large online following in Vietnam has caused widespread anger, and faces possible criminal charges, over a Facebook post thought to have insulted a military hero. A. embarrassed B. offended C. confused D. depressed Question 18: Jack persisted in attempting to convince his employers to use more technology and fewer people. A. endured B. remained C. repeated D. insisted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 19: The doctor asked John to exhale slowly. A. imhale B. move in C. enter D. breathe in Question 20: The soldier was demoted for improper behavior. A. promoted B. lowered C. resigned D. let off Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 21: Arm and Mary are studying in their classroom. Ann: “Can I borrow you dictionary?” Mary: “______ ” A. I’m afraid I can’t. B. Here you are! C. I think so. D. It doesn’t matter. Question 22: Jack and Joe are discussing how to make salad for dinner. Jack: “______” Joe: How about putting some grapes in it, instead? Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. We could fry some onions with it too. B. I’d rather just have some bread, thanks. C. Let’s put some pieces of apple in the salad. D. Good idea! I’ll go and make one. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. CHESS Chess, often (23)______ to as the Royal Game, is the oldest of all board games which do not contain an element of chance. The origins of chess are uncertain, (24)______ there are a number of legends regarding its invention. One story says that it was King Solomon who invented chess, another that it was the Greek god Hermes, and yet another that the Chinese mandarin Han-Sing was responsible for its creation. In fact, chess almost certainly originated in India in the sixth or seventh century AD. The game’s popularity then spread quickly through Persia (now known as Iran) and from there came to Europe. The first documented reference to chess in literature is in a Persian romance which was written about 600 AD. It is (25)_______ the word ‘chess’ comes from ‘shah’, the Persian word for ‘king’ and that ‘checkmate’, the game’s winning (26)_______, comes from the phrase ‘shah mat’, (27)______ ‘the king is dead’. The rules and pieces used in the game have undergone changes over the centuries. Modem chess owes much to the Spaniard Lopez de Segura, who in 1561 wrote the first book on how to play the game. In it, he introduced the concept of ‘castling’, which had not been part of the game until then. Question 23: A. mentioned B. called C. known D. referred Question 24: A. despite B. nevertheless C. although D. however Question 25: A. believed B. imagined C. held D. taken Question 26: A. place B. stand C. go D. move Question 27: A. representing B. suggesting C. intending D. meaning Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Rain pounded down on the roof. I was trying to read but the sound was too loud. I couldn’t help myself from being a little grumpy. I wanted to be outside playing, but the rain was keeping me inside. My mom had gone to the grocery store, and my dad was spending Saturday at the office. I had planned to spend the day hiking, but Mother Nature decided that today was the perfect day for rain. It meant that I would have to entertain myself. I spent most of the morning playing with my stuffed animals and reading. I was sitting next to the window staring out when I got a strange idea: why not just go outside anyway? I put on my boots and a big raincoat and stepped out into the wet world. It was raining hard but it wasn’t cold. All I could hear were raindrops and the wind. I decided to go on my hike anyway. My feet didn’t make any sound on the wet ground and the forest seemed different. I went to my favourite place and sat down. In the summer, my best friend Ellen and I would come here and sit for hours. It was our special place. All of a sudden, I thought I heard someone shouting my name. I turned and saw Ellen walking up behind me. “Oh my Gosh! It’s really you, Martha!” she said. “I can’t believe that you are out here right now. I thought I would be the only person crazy enough to go for a walk in the rain.” I was very happy to have some company. We decided that hiking in the rain was just as fun as hiking in the sunshine. We planned on hiking in the rain again. Question 28: What is the best title for the story? A. Rainy Day Work B. Rainy Day Hike C. A Rainy Day Indoors D. Rainy Day Homework Question 29: The word “grumpy” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. stupid B. bad-tempered C. uninterested D. unsatisfactory Question 30: What was keeping Martha inside? A. The heat B. Her parents C. Bad weather D. Lots of homework Question 31: What does Martha mean when she says “It meant that I would have to entertain myself”? A. She was tire D. B. She was feeling sick. C. She had to find something to do. D. She was bored with doing homework. Question 32: The word “company” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. time B. space C. friend D. business Question 33: What did Martha think about being outside? A. It was too hot. B. It was too cold. C. It was very nice. D. It was too wet to walk. Question 34: What will Martha and Ellen probably do next time it rains? A. Stay inside B. Do homework C. Go for another hike D. Go to their friend’s house Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Life in the Universe Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Exobiology is the study of life that originates from outside of Earth. As yet, of course, no such life forms have been found. Exobiologists, however, have done important work in the theoretical study of where life is most likely to evolve, and what those extrateưestrial life forms might be like. What sorts of planets are most likely to develop life? Most scientists agree that a habitable planet must be terrestrial, or rock-based, with liquid surface water and biogeochemical cycles that somewhat resemble Earth’s. Water is an important solvent involved in many biological processes. Biogeochemical cycles are the continuous movement and transformation of materials in the environment. These cycles include the circulation of elements and nutrients upon which life and the Earth’s climate depend. Since (as far as we know) all life is carbon-based, a stable carbon cycle is especially important. The habitable zone is the region around a star in which planets can develop life. Assuming the need for liquid surface water, it follows that most stars around the size of our sun will be able to sustain habitable zones for billions of years. Stars that are larger than the sun are much hotter and bum out more quickly; life there may not have enough time to evolve. Stars that are smaller than the sun have different problem. First of all, planets in their habitable zones will be so close to the star that they will be “tidally locked” – that is one side of the planet will always face the star in perpetual daylight with the other side in the perpetual night. Another possible obstacle to life on smaller stars is that they tend to vary in their luminosity, or brightness, due to flares and “star spots”. The variation can be large enough to have harmful effects on the ecosystem. Of course, not all stars of the right size will give rise to life; they also must have terrestrial planets with the right kind of orbits. Most solar systems have more than one planet, which influence each other’s orbits with their own gravity. Therefore, in order to have a stable system with no planets flying out into space, the orbits must be a good distance from one another. Interestingly, the amount of space needed is roughly the width of a star’s habitable zone. This means that for life to evolve, the largest possible number of life-supporting planets in any star’s habitable zone is two. Finally, not all planets meeting the above conditions will necessarily develop life. One major threat is large, frequent asteroid and comet impacts, which will wipe out life each time it tries to evolve. The case of Earth teaches that having large gas giants, such as Saturn and Jupiter,.in the outer part of the solar system can help keep a planet safe for life. Due to their strong gravitation, they tend to catch or deflect large objects before they can reach Earth. Question 35: What is the topic of the passage? A. The search for intelligent life B. Conditions necessary for life C. Characteristics of extraterrestrial life D. Life in our solar system Question 36: All of the following are mentioned in the passage as necessary for the development of life except A. rock B. carbon C. oxygen D. water Question 37: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to A. star B. zone C. region D. planet Question 38: It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that A. the Earth is in the sun’s habitable zone B. the Earth is tidally locked to the sun C. the sun varies in its luminosity D. variations in luminosity help life to develop Question 39: The word “sustain” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by A. assist B. have C. need D. experience Question 40: In order for life to develop, a planet’s orbit must not be A. stable B. very close to another planet’s orbit C. on the same planet as another planet’s orbit D. less wide than the star’s habitable zone Question 41: It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that A. most stars have more than two planets in their habitable zones B. no star has more than two planets in its habitable zone C. it is not possible for a star to have three planets with life on them D. for life to develop, a star must have at least two planets in its habitable zone Question 42: Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in the passage? A. Because of their nearness, habitable planets orbiting smaller stars usually have either constant daylight or constant night. B. The habitable zones of small stars are so close to the star that planets within them do not spin. C. One problem with some stars is that their habitable zones are tidally locked into either light or darkness. D. Some stars become tidally locked, so that they only shine light on one side of a planet. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: The school officials are considering a comprehensive planning to alleviate the problem of overcrowding in the dormitories. A. are B. planning C. alleviate D. overcrowding Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 44: Spanish is the only course that it is not offered in the summer term, but there are several classes offered in the fall. A. the only course B. it C. several D. offered Question 45: Sarah was not best speaker in the class, but her personality and ability to convey her feelings helped her become the most requested. A. not best B. ability C. feelings D. requested Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: There won’t be peace in the conflict if both sides do not really desire it. A. It is only if both sides actually want the conflict to end peacefully that it will happen. B. As both sides in the conflict apparently desire peace, it is likely that there will be peace soon. C. The main problem in the conflict seems to be that neither side really desires peace. D. There has been a lot of fighting in the conflict because both sides seem to want it that way. Question 47: The accident happened as a result of the driver’s not paying attention to the road. A. If the driver would have paid attention to the road, the accident hadn’t happened. B. Had the driver been paid attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened. C. If the driver had been paying attention to the road, the accident wouldn’t have happened. D. Had the accident not happened, the driver would not have had to pay attention to the road. Question 48: “Shall I help you do the dishes, Carlo?” said Robert. A. Robert suggested helping Carlo with the dishes. B. Robert suggested to help Carlo do the dishes. C. Robert offered Carlo to help do the dishes. D. Robert offered to help Carlo do the dishes. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I started training to be an accountant six months ago. I’ve got more months to go and then I have to take exams. A. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will have started training to be an accountant for a year B. By the time I take my exam, I will have been in training to be an accountant for a year. C. By the time I took my exam, I would have trained to be an accountant for a year. D. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will be training for a year. Question 50: Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon? Danny's totally unfit. A. Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon who’s totally unfit? B. Why did Danny, whose totally unfit, decide to enter the marathon? C. Why did Danny decide to enter the marathon, who’s totally unfit? D. Why did Danny, who’s totally unfit, decide to enter the marathon? THE END! PRACTICE TEST 59 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following Question s. Question 1: A. possesses B. brushes C. watches D. indicates Question 2: A. passionate B. pessimism C. assessment D. passages Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following Question s. Question 3: A. celebrate B. occupy C. festivity D. atmosphere Question 4: A. approximately B. considerable C. environmental D. conservation Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following Question s. Question 5: The Dutch are playing the Italian first, and then the Spanish and the Portuguese play. A. Dutch B. Italian C. Spanish D. Portuguese Question 6: So extensive the lakes are that they are viewed as the largest bodies of fresh water in the world. A. the lakes are B. are viewed C. largest D. of fresh water Question 7: Each of the musicians in the orchestra were rehearsing daily before the concert tour began. A. musicians B. were C. daily before D. began Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Question s. Question 8: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river. A. releasing B. increasing C. decreasing D. keeping Question 9: Thanks to her regular workouts and sensible diet she certainly strikes me as in the pink. A. in absolute health B. in good health C. in clear health D. in extreme health Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following Question s. Question 10: If you are at a loose end this weekend, I will show you around the city. A. free B. confident C. occupied D. reluctant Question 11: The problem is due to discipline, or, more precisely, the lack of discipline, in school. A. informally B. flexible C. casually D. wrongly Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following Question s. Question 12: On her birthday she had only her cat for company. A. The only thing she brought to the birthday party was her cat. B. She came to the birthday party in company with her only cat. C. The birthday present of the company for her was just a cat. D. She was on her own except for her cat on her birthday. Question 13: I never thought that I could win a prize. A. It never dawned in me that I could win a prize. B. I was never put off from winning a prize. C. It never crossed my mind that I could win a prize. D. I never had full advantage of winning a prize. Question 14: The mistake in the accounts was not noticed until the figures were re-checked. A. It was not until the mistake in the accounts was noticed that the figures were re-checked. B. Once re-checking the figures, the mistake in the accounts was noticed. C. The mistake in the accounts only came to light when the figures were re-checked. D. When the figures were re-checked they came to light the mistake in the accounts. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following Question s. Question 15: Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan. I spoke to him on the phone last night. A. Mr. Smith, who is very interested in our plan, I spoke to on the phone last night. B. Mr. Smith, to whom I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan. C. Mr. Smith is very interested in our plan to whom I spoke on the phone last night. D. Mr. Smith, who I spoke on the phone last night, is very interested in our plan. Question 16: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers. A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance. B. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant dose not appear to attract much business. C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better. D. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looks better. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following Question . Question 17: Her first flight as the captain of a plane was an important _____ in her professional life. A. aftermath B. shiftwork C. milestone D. cause Question 18: An inspiring speaker, Reverend Jackson always manages to _____ the best in his congregation. A. bring up B. bring out C. bring over D. bring across Question 19: The bed-ridden old man objected _____ as a burden on his family. A. to being regarded B. at his being regarded C. with his regarding D. for regarding Question 20: We are _____ considering having a swimming pool built as the summers are so long and hot. A. seriously B. thoughtfully C. sincerely D. responsibly Question 21: ______ anything, she was unable to help the police. A. While not seeing B. Since not seen C. Not having seen D. As not seeing Question 22: Michelle is a(n) _____ worker who always takes great care not to make any mistakes. A. conductive B. meticulous C. honorable D. careless Question 23: The moment you _____ him, you’ll understand what I’m talking about. A. see B. are seeing C. will see D. saw Question 24: Why should I throw the milk away? It _____. A. isn’t smelling so badly B. isn’t smelling so bad C. doesn’t smell so bad D. doesn’t smell so badly Question 25: Mike has quickly established himself _____ the National Football League’s most valued players. A. to be one of B. as one of C. as D. to be Question 26: “Why did you waste your money on going to see that movie?” “I know. It’s the ____ film I’ve ever seen.” A. worse B. baddest C. worst D. bad Question 27: Danielle would still be our best defender _____ an accident. A. if she didn’t have B. if she hadn’t C. had she not had D. weren’t she to have Question 28: ____ are poised to change the face of the construction industry in the coming year. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. Designing buildings environmentally B. Building environmentally designing C. Environmentally designed buildings D. Designed environmental building Question 29: “She is an excellent actress!” “You _____ again!” A. can say that B. may say it C. say it D. say that Question 30: “Do you know who else is going to be running for governor?” “_____ that Mr. Jones is planning to.” A. Word is it B. Word has it C. Word has D. The words are Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. University researchers have taken samples from a preserved dodo specimen in an (31) _____ to uncover the extinct bird’s family tree. They worked with the British Natural History Museum to collect and study genetic material from large number of specimens: a preserved dodo, the extinct solitaire bird, and 35 kind of living pigeons and doves. Their analysis (32) _____ the doo and the solitaire to be close relatives with the Nicobar pigeon, their nearest living relative. The dodo lived on Mauritius in the Indian Ocean. It was a flightless bird, bigger than a turkey. By 1681, all dodos had been (33) _____ by hungry sailors. The solitaire, which looked a bit like a dodo, had gone the same way by 1800. By extracting short pieces of the dodo’s DNA and (34) _____ these with the DNA of living birds, the scientists were able to deduce when the dodo evolved away from its relatives into a separate entity. The scientists can now (35) _____ assume that the dodo developed its distinctive appearance and features as a result of its geographical isolation. They are now convinced that it separated from the solitaire about 25 million years ago, long before Mauritius became an island. Question 31: A. attempt B. intention C. order D. assistance Question 32: A. advises B. involves C. shows D. recommends Question 33: A. disappeared B. vanished C. killed D. extinct Question 34: A. studying B. comparing C. researching D. combining Question 35: A. surely B. hardly C. highly D. safely Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the Question s. There has been much debate over the past few decades concerning fears that automation will lead to robots replacing human workers on a massive scale. The increasing use of robotics, computers and artificial intelligence is a reality, but its full implications are far from cut and dried. Some forecasts present the future in a utopian way, claiming that robots will take over the tedious heavy work thus freeing up human time and potential, allowing for more creativity and innovation. At the other end of spectrum are those who foresee an employment apocalypse, predicting that almost fifty percent of all American jobs could vanish within the next few decades. Former Microsoft chairman Bill Gates states that in 20 years robots could be in place in a number of job categories, particularly those at lower end of the scale in terms of skills. The bottom line is that while the future is always uncertain, robots are a fixture of our society, which is not going to disappear. As with the Industrial Revolution, where machines were utilized in many tasks in place of manual laborers and social upheaval followed, the Digital Revolution is likely to place robots in various jobs. In spite of that, many of today’s jobs were not in existence before the Industrial Revolution, such as those of programmers, engineers and data scientists. This leads other experts to criticize this alarmist approach of robot scare-mongering, which is invariably compared to the 19th-century “Luddites”. This group was textile workers who feared being displaced by machines and resorted to violence, burning down factories and destroying industrial equipment – their rejection of inevitable progress has come to symbolize mindless ignorance. Needless to say, exactly what new kinds of jobs might exist in the future is difficult to envision at present. Therefore, the crux of the issue is not whether jobs will be lost, but whether the creation of new vacancies will outpace the everincreasing number of losses and what skills will be required in the future. It is clearly not all doom and gloom, as demand for employees with skills in data analysis, coding, computer science, artificial intelligence and human-machine interface is rising and will continue to do so. Furthermore, the demand for skills in jobs where humans surpass computers, such as those involving care, creativity and innovative craftmanship, are likely to increase considerably. Ultimately, the key lies in the adaptation of the workforces, through appropriate education and training, to keep pace with our world’s technological progress. Question 36: What is the main concern associated with technological advances in the workplace? A. safety at work B. increased unemployment C. the use of artificial intelligence D. robots taking over the world Question 37: What do optimists predict technology will allow? A. workplaces to become more relaxing B. a greater enjoyment of life C. flexible working hours D. higher quality products Question 38: What can be inferred from the comments made by Bill Gates? A. Changes will occur for many decades. B. There will be increasing amounts of unskilled workers. C. Highly skilled workers have less to worry about.D. Technology will have a negative effect in the workplace. Question 39: Why is the example of the Industrial Revolution given? A. It was also a time of great change in the workplace. B. It had far less of an effect than the Digital Revolution. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. It lead to widespread unemployment in the world. D. It resulted in a more violent society. Question 40: What is the modern-day view of the Luddites? A. They managed to protect their jobs. B. Their refusing to adapt to change is seen in a negative way. C. Their adapting to new technology saved their jobs. D. Their actions are inspiring many workers today. Question 41: Which of the following is closest in meaning to crux in paragraph 4? A. The most complex part B. The hidden message C. The least understood part D. The most important part Question 42: According to the article, which quality will technology never be able to replace? A. teamwork B. human compassion C. the desire to manufacture goods D. human intelligence Question 43: What is the main idea of this article? A. There are few negative consequences to the Digital Revolution. B. Learning about technology is a natural part of human development. C. Workers will need to adapt to technological changes. D. Unemployment will increase dramatically as technology advances. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the Question s. Thanks to electricity, candles are no longer a necessity in our lives, but they are still a pleasure. The warm flame of candlelight can quickly alter the mood and atmosphere of a room, often creating a peaceful scene that electric light just cannot match. Candles are an important part of many cultural and religious festival and have been burnt in various forms for centuries. The ancient Romans and Egyptians made candles from a type of fiber coated with wax. However, up until the nineteenth century, most candles were made from a substance called tallow, obtained from beef fat. Tallow candles were very smoky and, understandably, had an unpleasant odor. In the 19th century, candle makers learned to separate stearin, the solid form fat used as a type of glue, from tallow and used it to harden other fats. Candles that contained stearin would burn longer than previous ones and had a better smell. Stearin is still one of the main components of modern candle-making, and the techniques used to create candles today are much the same as they have been for many years. These days, the increase range of wax dyes, perfumes and other additives that are now available make candle making a very exciting and rewarding hobby. Sales of candles have increased greatly over the last few years, showing that they have become part of our lives again, not through necessity, but because of the magical atmosphere they create. In our increasingly stressful lives, the calming quality of candlelight has a relaxing effect that many enjoy. For those would like to learn to make candles, finding and buying candle-making kits is easy. Candle-making is definitely enhanced by the exciting possibilities of experimentation with various materials. Be brave and try out different effects – some of the most wonderful creations can happen by accident. With a bit of practice, you will be amazed at the very professional finish that can be achieved. Despite their delicate beauty, candles can, of course, be highly dangerous. One should never leave lit candles unattended, even for a few moments. Always make sure candles are securely placed within candleholders. Teach your children to respect a burning candle, and of course keep burning candles away from flammable materials. Keep your home safe by remembering that a candle is magical, but fire can be very destructive. Be careful, and enjoy the beauty of your candles! Question 44: According to the text, what is the importance of candles? A. We need them in case there is an electric backout. B. We gain a feeling of calm when they are lit in a room. C. We light them to create a more romantic atmosphere. D. We cannot do without them in our daily lives. Question 45: Why dose the writer mention ancient Romans and Egyptians in the text? A. to show that before making candles, we should learn their history B. to show one of the ways candles were made in the past C. to show how candles were invented D. to show that candles have always been used Question 46: Why was stearin used in candles? A. It create a more colorful flame than tallow. B. It covered up unpleasant smells in the air. C. It was used to get rid of fat in the candles. D. It helped make candles burn longer. Question 47: According to the text, what dose the increase of candle sales illustrate? A. People enjoy the calming effect that candles produce. B. The variety of candles to choose from makes them more attractive. C. People buy candles as gifts more often than they used to. D. Candles are cheaper to buy now than they were in the past. Question 48: According to the text, what is needed to succeed at candle-making? A. a few years of practice B. a lot of time and money Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. willingness to take risks D. many expensive materials Question 49: What dose the passage warn readers not to do? A. burn candle without adult supervision B. leave a room where a candle is burning C. use unapproved ingredients in candles D. burn candles for only a few minutes Question 50: Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage? A. Candle-making can be a successful business. B. Candles are made from different types of material. C. Candles continue to be a part of people’s lives. D. Candle-making has changed little over the years. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 60 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. preparation B. susceptible C. experiment D. genetically Question 2: A. hesitate B. excessive C. saturate D. restrict Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 3: Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions. A. Ha Long Bay was recognized twice by the UNESCO, and as a consequence it remains one of the country’s top attractions. B. Ha Long Bay, the global heritage which was recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions. C. Ha Long Bay, is the global heritage and was recognized twice by the UNESCO, remains one of the country’s top attractions. D. It is Ha Long Bay, the global heritage recognized twice by the UNESCO, that remains one of the country’s top attractions. Question 4: “What a novel idea for the farewell party” said Nam to the monitor. A. Nam exclaimed with admiration at the novel idea for the farewell party of the monitor. B. Nam admired the novel idea for the farewell party. C. Nam thought over the novel idea for the farewell party. D. Nam said that it was a novel idea of the monitor for the farewell party. Question 5: We should have our school’s swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because it is looking dirty. A. Our school’s swimming pool should be cleaned regularly because of its dirtiness. B. We should clean our school’s swimming pool at the beginning of the summer because it is looking dirty. C. We had better get our school swimming pool cleaned before the summer begins because of its dirtiness. D. Due to the impurity of our school swimming pool, we should have someone clean it as soon as possible. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best option for each of the blanks Women are much healthier when they (6) ______ it easy, reveals a new survey. Those who work long hours are more likely than men to (7) ______ in unhealthy behavior such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no such impact on men). One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol (8) ______ is reduced. The study (9) ______ by the Economic and Social Research Council is part of a wider study by psychologists from the University of Leeds into the effects of stress on eating. “Stress causes people to (10) ______ for unhealthy high fat and high–sugar snacks in preference to healthier food choice” says researcher Dr. Daryl of the University of Leeds. Question 6: A. make B. feel C. take D. get Question 7: A. indulge B. interest C. develop D. participate Question 8: A. beverage B. consumption C. expenditure D. sales Question 9: A. funding B. which funds C. funded D. which funded Question 10: A. choose B. select C. decide D. opt Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 11: When two people get married, it is with the assumption that their feelings for each other are immutable and will never alter. A. constantly B. alterable C. unchangeable D. everlasting Question 12: That the genetic differences make one race superior to another is nothing but a tall story. A. cynical B. unbelievable C. untrue D. exaggeration Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 13: A. certainly B. marvelous C. counseling D. persuasive Question 14: A. represent B. systematic C. detrimental D. fulfillment Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 15: Golf wear has become a very lucrative business for both the manufacturers and golf stars. A. unprofitable B. impoverished C. inexpensive D. unfavorable Question 16: Unless you get your information from a credible website, you should doubt the veracity of the facts until you have confirmed them else where. A. inexactness B. falsehoodness C. unaccuracy D. unfairness Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The end of the nineteenth century and the early years of the twentieth century were marked by the development of an international Art Nouveau style, characterized by sinuous lines, floral and vegetable motifs, and soft evanescent coloration. The Art Nouveau style was an eclectic one, bringing together elements of Japanese art, motifs of ancient cultures, and natural forms. The glass objects of this style were elegant in outline, although often deliberately distorted, with pale or iridescent surfaces. A favored device of the style was to imitate the iridescent surface seen on ancient glass that had been buried. Much of the Art Nouveau glass produced during the years of its greatest popularity had been generically termed “art glass.” Art glass was intended for decorative purposes and relied for its effect on carefully chosen color combinations and innovative techniques. France produced a number of outstanding exponents of the Art Nouveau style; among the most celebrated was Emile Galle (1846–1904). In the United States, Louis Comfort Tiffany (1843–1933) was the most noted exponent of this style, producing a great variety of glass forms and surfaces, which were widely copied in their time and are highly prized today. Tiffany was a brilliant designer, successfully combining ancient Egyptian, Japanese, and Persian motifs. The Art Nouveau style was a major force in the decorative arts from 1895 until 1915, although its influence continued throughout the mid–1920’s.It was eventually to be overtaken by a new school of thought known as Functionalism that had been present since the turn of the century. At first restricted to a small avant–garde group of architects and designers, Functionalism emerged as the dominant influence upon designers after the First World War. The basic tenet of the movement–that function should determine form–was not a new concept. Soon a distinct aesthetic code evolved: from should be simple, surfaces plain, and any ornament should be based on geometric relationships. This new design concept, coupled with the sharp postwar reactions to the styles and conventions of the preceding decades, created an entirely new public taste which caused Art Nouveau types of glass to fall out of favor. The new taste demanded dramatic effects of contrast, stark outline and complex textural surfaces. Question 17: What does paragraph 1 mainly discuss? A. Design elements in the Art Nouveau style B. The popularity of the Art Nouveau style C. Production techniques for art glass D. Color combinations typical of the Art Nouveau style Question 18: The word “one” refers to______. A. century. B. development. C. style. D. coloration. Question 19: Para.1 mentions that Art Nouveau glass was sometimes similar to which aspect of ancient buried glass______. A. The distortion of the glass B. The appearance of the glass surface C. The shapes of the glass objects D. The size of the glass objects Question 20: The word “overtaken” in line 19 is closest in meaning to______. A. surpassed B. inclined C. expressed D. applied Question 21: What does the author mean by stating that “function should determine form”? A. A useful object should not be attractive. B. The purpose of an object should influence its form. C. The design of an object is considered more significant than its function. D. The form of an object should not include decorative elements. Question 22: It can be inferred from the passage that one reason Functionalism became popular was that it______. A. clearly distinguished between art and design B. appealed to people who liked complex painted designs C. reflected a common desire to break from the past D. was easily interpreted by the general public Question 23: Paragraph 3 supports which of the following statements about Functionalism? A. Its design concept avoided geometric shapes. B. It started on a small scale and then spread gradually. C. It was a major force in the decorative arts before the First World War. D. It was not attractive to architects all designers. Question 24: According to the passage, an object made in the Art Nouveau style would most likely include ______. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. a flowered design. B. bright colors. C. modern symbols. D. a textured surface. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 25: Ensoleill and Sunny are talking about Ted’s accident last week. Ensoleill: “A motor bike knocked Ted down”. Sunny: “ ____________” A. What it is now? B. What a motor bike! C. How terrific! D. Poor Ted ! Question 26: Mary and her friend, Ensoleill, are in a coffee shop. Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice–cream or Caramen with jam?” Ensoleill: “______________”. A. I like eating them all. B. Yes, I’d love two.C. It doesn’t matter. D. Neither is fine. They are good. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 27: High–level sport people must maintain a high level of fitness ______ run the risk of suffering injuries that cause permanent damage. A. or else B. besides C. unless D. on account of Question 28: Many students prefer ______ assessment as an alternative to exams A. continuing B. continued C. continual D. continuous Question 29: British Leyland is aiming to push ______ its share of UK car sale to 25% over the next two years. A. on B. up C. through D. out Question 30: The press thought the sale manager would be depressed by his dismissal but he just ______. A. turned it down B. called it off C. spoke it out D. laughed it off Question 31: Just as you arrived, I ______ ready to go out. A. have got B. was getting C. would get D. have been getting Question 32: Your sister has lost an awful lot of weight. She must have been on a diet, ______? A. mustn’t she B. needn’t she C. haven’t she D. hasn’t she Question 33: You should accept the Nokia mobile phone as a 16–birthday present from your parents delightedly. Don’t ______. A. look gift horse in the mouth B. buy it through the nose C. pull my leg D. take it for granted Question 34: ______ irritating they are, you shouldn’t lose temper with small children. A. No matter how much B. As much as C. However D. Although Question 35: There are ______ that not only governments but also individuals should join hand to tackle. A. too numerous environmental problems B. such a lot of environmental problems C. so fewer environmental problems D. such many environmental problems Question 36: If I weren’t afraid of travelling by air, I ______ to go to American by ship, which took me much longer time.A. I hadn’t had B. I wouldn’t have had C. I shouldn’t have had D. I wouldn’t have Question 37: He built up a successful business but it was all done ______ of his health. A. at the price B. by the expense C. at all cost D. at the expense Question 38: ______ is over your head is just an exaggeration because you have well prepared for it over the years. A. This entrance exam B. What this entrance exam C. That this entrance exam D. It is this entrance exam Mark the letter A, B , C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 39: It is unclear which agency will be responsible for cleaning the canal if it will become polluted again in the near future. A. which agency B. responsible C. if it will become D. polluted Question 40: Perfume tends to be lost its flavor when it has not been properly sealed. A. Perfume B. tends to be lost C. when it D. properly sealed Question 41: Water environment in the world–renowned Ha Long bay has been under tremendous pressure from the socio–economic activities in the area. A. Water environment B. has been C. pressure from D. socio–economic activities Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. According to anthropologists, people in preindustrial societies spent 3 to 4 hours per day or about 20 hours per week doing the work necessary for life. Modern comparisons of the amount of work performed per week, however, begin with the Industrial Revolution (1760–1840) when 10– to 12–hour workdays with six workdays per week were the norm. Even with extensive time devoted to work, however, both incomes and standards of living were low. As incomes rose near the end of the Industrial Revolution, it became increasingly common to treat Saturday afternoons as a half–day holiday. The half holiday had become standard practice in Britain by the 1870's, but did not become common in the United States until the 1920's. In the United States, the first third of the twentieth century saw the workweek move from 60 hours per week to just under 50 hours by the start of the 1930' s. In 1914, Henry Ford reduced daily work hours at his automobile plants from 9 Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose to 8. In 1926 he announced that henceforth his factories would close for the entire day on Saturday. At the time, Ford received criticism from other firms such as United States Steel and Westinghouse, but the idea was popular with workers. The Depression years of the 1930's brought with them the notion of job sharing to spread available work around; the workweek dropped to a modem low for the United States of 35 hours. In 1938 the Fair Labor Standards Act mandated a weekly maximum of 40 hours to begin in 1940, and since that time the 8–hour day, 5–day workweek has been the standard in the United States. Adjustments in various places, however, show that this standard is not immutable. In 1987, for example, German metalworkers struck for and received a 37.5–hour workweek; and in 1990 many workers in Britain won a 37–hour week. Since 1989, the Japanese government has moved from a 6– to a 5–day workweek and has set a national target of 1,800 work hours per year for the average worker. The average amount of work per year in Japan in 1989 was 2,088 hours per worker, compared to 1,957 for the United States and 1,646 for France. Question 42: Compared to preindustrial times, the number of hours in the workweek in the nineteenth century______. A. remained constant B. decreased slightly C. decreased significantly D. increased significantly Question 43: The "idea" mentioned in line 15 refers to______. A. the criticism of Ford by United States Steel and Westinghouse. B. the reduction in the workweek at some automobile factories. C. the reduction in the cost of automobiles.D. the 60–hour workweek. Question 44: Which of the following is mentioned as one of the purposes of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938? A. To restrict trade with countries that had a long workweek. B. To discourage workers from asking for increased wages. C. To establish a limit on the number of hours in the workweek. D. To allow employers to set the length of the workweek for their workers. Question 45: What is one reason for the change in the length of the workweek for the average worker in the United States during the 1930's? A. Several people sometimes shared a single job. B. Labor strikes in several countries influenced labor policy in the United States. C. Several corporations increased the length of the workweek. D. The United States government instituted a 35–hour workweek. Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Working conditions during the Industrial Revolution. B. Why people in preindustrial societies worked few hours per week. C. Changes that have occurred in the number of hours that people work per week. D. A comparison of the number of hours worked per year in several industries. Question 47: The word "henceforth" in line 13 is closest in meaning to A. for a brief period. B. from that time on. C. in the end. D. on occasion. Question 48: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as evidence that the length of the workweek has been declining since the nineteenth century? A. Henry Ford. B. German metalworkers.C. The half–day holiday. D. United States Steel and Westinghouse. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I accepted the new job after all. It is making me feel exhausted. A. Perhaps I shouldn’t have accepted this new job, as it’s making me feel exhausted. B. Perhaps it would have been better if I hadn’t agreed to this new job since it is so boring. C. It is of deep regret that I didn’t turn down the job offer due to its hardship and long hour work. D. If it had not been for my acceptance the new job offer, I wouldn’t have felt exhausted. Question 50: Since 1970, the United Nations has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day. It attracts millions of people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection. A. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day because it attracts millions of people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection. B. The UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day, which millions of people worldwide are attracted to join in it to promote public awareness of environmental protection. C. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day, which attracts millions of people worldwide to join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection. D. Since 1970, the UNs has been celebrating April 22nd as Earth Day so that more people join in to promote public awareness of environmental protection. THE END!
Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 61 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question1: The aircraft carrier is indispensable in naval operations against sea or shore based enemies. A. novel B. unnecessary C. exotic D. vital Question2: People are now far more materialistic than their predecessors years ago. A. monetary B. greedy C. object-oriented D. spiritual Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you volunteer relevant information about yourself. Think about how you want to present your (3)_______, experiences, education, work style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the statements you make. It is also a good idea to review your résumé with a critical eye and identify areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can answer difficult questions (4)_______ and positively, while keeping each answer brief. An interview gives the employer a (5)_______ to get to know you. While you do want to market yourself to the employer, answer each question with an honest response. Never say anything negative about past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an experience and talk about that. You should also be (6)_______. If you are genuinely interested in the job, let the interviewer know that. One of the best ways to show you are interested in a job is to demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (7)_______ interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. Question3: A. pressures B. practices C. promotions D. strengths Question4: A. accurately B. hardly C. rightly D. sharply Question5: A. change B. way C. chance D. practice Question6: A. enthusiasm B. enthusiastic C. enthusiast D. enthusiastically Question7: A. show B. appear C. conceal D. cover Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question8: He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented A. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals. B. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented. C. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success. D. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals. Question9: There was a serious flood. All local pupils couldn’t go to school on that day. A. The serious flood prevented all local pupils not go to school on that day. B. The serious flood hindered all local pupils from going to school on that day. C. The serious flood made all pupils from not going to school on that day. D. The serious flood caused all local pupils not go to school on that day. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question10: I would willingly have lent you the money myself if only I’d known you needed it. A. I would lend you the money willingly if I were convinced that you really required it. B. As I realized just how necessary the loan was to you, I naturally lent you what you needed. C. Had I realized that you were in need of such a loan, I would gladly have lent it to you myself. D. I was under no obligation to offer you a loan, but nevertheless did so gladly. Question11: The scene is set in Normandy, but most of the characters in this novel are Londoners. A. In the novel, the action moves backwards and forwards between Normandy and London. B. The story is about Normandy, but the leading characters are all Londoners. C. The main characters in the novel are Londoners on a sightseeing holiday in Normandy. D. In this novel, the story takes place in Normandy but the majority of the characters are from London. Question12: We got caught in a traffic jam so we were among the last to arrive. A. Most people got there before us as we were held up by the traffic. B. The late arrivers all put the blame on the heavy traffic. C. The traffic was so heavy that nearly everyone arrived late. D. There was such a congestion on the roads that I thought we never would get there. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question13: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a feast - a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering. A. having to do with food and cooking B. relating to medical knowledge C. involving hygienic conditions and diseases D. concerning nutrition and health Question14: The works of the English theoretical physicist and cosmologist Stephen Hawking helped pave the way for the framework of general relativity and theoretical prediction of black holes dynamics and mechanics. A. terminate B. lighten C. initiate D. prevent Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction. Question15: A professor of economy and history at our university developed a new theory of the relationship between historical events and financial crises. A. economy B. developed C. between D. financial crises Question16: The Mediterranean, a large sea surrounded by land, is a mile depth on the average and more than 2000 miles long. A. surrounded by land B. depth C. on the average D. 2000 miles long Question17: If you record people spoke a disappearing language, you can keep important information about both the language and its speaker. A. spoke B. disappearing C. keep D. about Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question18: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet. Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?” – Tom: “___________.” A. Studying in a group is great fun. B. We are too busy on weekdays. C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. The library would be best. Question19: Peter: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?” – Jerry: “__________.” A. Yes, it’s an absurd idea. B. There’s no doubt about it. C. Of course not. You bet. D. Well, that’s very surprising! Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best way to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the best decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets cam take, they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these values together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision. Since most important problems are multifaceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A realistic example for many college students is the question "What will I do after graduation?" A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, pursue an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year. A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?" Question20: According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that A. has the fewest variables to consider B. uses the most decision worksheet C. has the most points assigned to it D. is agreed to by the greatest number of people Question21: Which of the following terms is defined in the passage? A. Proponents (paragraph 1) B. Optimal (paragraph 1)C. Variables (paragraph 3) D. Long-range goals (paragraph 4) Question22: The word "essential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. introductory B. fundamental C. changeable D. beneficial Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question23: The author states that "On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their minds at once" (paragraph 3) to explain that A. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice B. most decisions involve seven steps.C. human mental capacity has limitations. D. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions. Question24: The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers toA. worksheet B. problem C. distinction D. decision Question25: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal decisions. B. Research on how people make decisions. C. A tool to assist in making complex decisions. D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making. Question26: Of the following steps, which occurs BEFORE the others in making a decision worksheet? A. Listing the consequences of each solution. B. Writing down all possible solutions. C. Deciding which consequences are most important. D. Calculating a numerical summary of each solution. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question27: It’s no longer possible to argue that crime is ______ with unemployment. A. connecting B. connect C. unconnected D. disconnected Question28: The authorities have shown no signs of _______ to the kidnappers’ demands. A. standing up B. bringing about C. getting down D. giving in Question29: Many of the beautiful buildings in our cities ______ by exhaust gases from cars and factories. We must do something to stop this.A. were destroyed B. are destroyed C. are being destroyed D. have been destroyed Question30: Residents were warned not to be extravagant with water, ______ the low rainfall this year. A. in view of B. with a view to C. regardless of D. irrespective of Question31: That play was ______ for her to see again. A. interesting enough B. too interesting C. enough interesting D. so interesting Question32: His wife is a terrible snob. She _____ almost all his friends because they have north country accents. A. looks up to B. looks forward to C. looks out on D. looks down on Question33: Upon returning from the class, _______. A. a letter was found in the mail box B. a letter was in the mail box C. he found a letter from the mail box D. the mail box had a letter in it Question34: All three TV channels provide extensive _____ of sporting events. A. broadcast B. network C. coverage D. vision Question35: According to the conditions of my scholarship, after finishing my degree, ______. A. the university will employ me B. my education will be employed by the university C. I will be employed by the university D. employment will be given to me by the university Question36: There are many ______ in our library. A. old American interesting history books B. interesting old American history books C. interesting American old history books D. American interesting old history books Question37: Those letters _____ now. You can do the typing later. A. need to type B. need typing C. needn’t be typing D. needn’t be typed Question38: The more he tried to explain, _______ we got. A. the much confused B. the many confusing C. the more confusing D. the more confused
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question39: A. kissed B. washed C. advertised D. slipped Question40: A. casebook B. briefcase C. suitcase D. purchase Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions TRACKING THE SNOW LEOPARD “When a snow leopard stalks its prey among the mountain walls, it moves softly, slowly,” explains Indian biologist Raghunandan Singh Chundawat, who has studied the animal for years. “If it knocks a stone loose, it will reach out a foot to stop it from falling and making noise.” One might be moving right now, perfectly silent, maybe close by. But where? And how many are left to see? Best known for its spotted coat and long distinctive tail, the snow leopard is one of the world’s most secretive animals. These elusive cats can only be found high in the remote, mountainous regions of central Asia. For this reason, and because they hunt primarily at night, they are very rarely seen. Snow leopards have been officially protected since 1975, but enforcing this law has proven difficult. Many continue to be killed for their fur and body parts, which are worth a fortune on the black market. In recent years, though, conflict with local herders has also led to a number of snow leopard deaths. This is because the big cats kill the herders’ animals, and drag the bodies away to eat high up in the mountains. As a result of these pressures, the current snow leopard population is estimated at only 4,000 to 7,000, and some fear that the actual number may already have dropped below 3,500. The only way to reverse this trend and bring these cats back from near extinction, say conservationists, is to make them more valuable alive than dead. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Because farming is difficult in Central Asia’s cold, dry landscape, traditional cultures depend mostly on livestock (mainly sheep and goats) to survive in these mountainous regions. At night, when snow leopards hunt, herders’ animals are in danger of snow leopard attacks. Losing only a few animals can push a family into desperate poverty. “The wolf comes and kills, eats, and goes somewhere else,” said one herder, “but snow leopards are always around. They have killed one or two animals many time. Everybody wanted to finish this leopard.” To address this problem, local religious leaders have called for an end to snow leopard killings, saying that these wild animals have the right to exist peacefully. They’ve also tried to convince people that the leopards are quite rare and thus it is important to protect them. Financial incentives are also helping to slow snow leopard killings. The organization Snow Leopard Conservancy–India has established Himalayan Homestays, a program that sends visitors to the region to herders’ houses. For a clean room and bed, meals with the family, and an introduction to their culture, visitors pay about ten U.S. dollars a night. Having guests once every two weeks through the tourist season provides the herders with enough income to replace the animals lost to snow leopards. In addition, Homestays helps herders build protective fences that keep out snow leopards. The organization also conducts environmental classes at village schools and trains Homestays members as nature guides, available for hire. In exchange, the herders agree not to kill snow leopards. In Mongolia, a project called Snow Leopard Enterprises (SLE) helps herder communities earn extra money in exchange for their promise to protect the endangered cat. Women in Mongolian herder communities make a variety of products— yarn for making clothes, decorative floor rugs, and toys—using the wool from their herds. SLE buys these items from herding families and sells them abroad. Herders must agree to protect the snow leopards and to encourage neighbors to do the same. The arrangement increases herders’ incomes by 10 to 15 percent and “elevates” the status of the women. If no one in the community kills the protected animals over the course of a year, the program members are rewarded with a 20 percent bonus in addition to the money they’ve already made. An independent review in 2006 found no snow leopard killings in areas where SLE operates. Today the organization continues to add more communities. Projects like the Homestays program in India and SLE’s business in Mongolia are doing well, though they cover only a small part of the snow leopard’s homeland, they make the leopards more valuable to more people each year. If these programs continue to do well, the snow leopard may just have a figting chance. Question41: Which of these is NOT true about the Himalayan Homestays program? A. The organization helps herders to build fences. B. Herders provide accommodation to guests. C. Some herders work as nature guides. D. Visitors pay $10 a week to stay at a herder’s house. Question42: The purpose of the projects mentioned is A. to persuade herders to live on eco-tourism not raising animals B. to elevate the status of the women in the communities C. to increase the population of snow leopards in wildlife reserves D. to make local people have a sustainable life to protect snow leopards Question43: The phrase “this trend” in paragraph 4 refers to A. the fall in the snow leopard population B. the pressures caused by the black market C. increasing conflict with the herders D. the opinions of conservationists Question44: What is the main idea of the third paragraph? A. Local herders are uncooperative in attempts to save snow leopards. B. The snow leopard’s endangerment is due to in part to the black market. C. Snow leopards are killed for their fur and body parts. D. It is difficult to enforce the laws made to protect the snow leopard. Question45: The word “address” in in paragraph 6 can be replaced by A. solve B. locate C. discuss D. change Question46: Why is the Mongolian women's status in the community “elevated”? A. They can encourage their neighbours. B. They are saving money for the snow leopards. C. They are earning money for the community. D. They are living higher up in the mountain. Question47: According to conservationists, what is the best way to save the snow leopard? A. Create a nature park where they can be free B. Move herders away from where the snow leopard lives C. Pass laws to punish people who kill snow leopards for their fur D. Make people recognize the value of living snow leopards. Question48: The word “bodies” in paragraph 3 refers to A. the big cats B. snow leopards C. local herders D. the herders’ animals Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question49: A. suspicious B. marvelous C. physical D. argument Question50: A. spaciousness B. solicitor C. consequence D. separately THE END! Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 62 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. house B. cloud C. blouse D. coupon Question 2: A. chores B. halves C. becomes D. minutes Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Herman Melville, an American author best known today for his novel Moby Dick, was actually more popular during his lifetime for some of his other works. He traveled extensively and used the knowledge gained during his travels as the basis for his early novels. In 1837, at the age of eighteen, Melville signed as a cabin boy on a merchant ship that was to sail from his Massachusetts home to Liverpool, England. His experiences on this trip served as a basis for the novel Redburn (1849). In 1841 Melville set out on a whaling ship headed for the South Seas. After jumping ship in Tahiti, he wandered around the islands of Tahiti and Moorea. This South Sea island sojourn was a backdrop to the novel Omoo (1847). After three years away from home, Melville joined up with a U.S. naval frigate that was returning to the eastern United States around Cape Horn. The novel White-Jacket (1850) describes this lengthy voyage as a navy seaman. With the publication of these early adventure novels, Melville developed a strong and loyal following among readers eager for his tales of exotic places and situations. However, in 1851, with the publication of Moby Dick, Melville's popularity started to diminish. Moby Dick, on one level the saga of the hunt for the great white whale, was also a heavily symbolic allegory of the heroic struggle of man against the universe. The public was not ready for Melville's literary metamorphosis from romantic adventure to philosophical symbolism. It is ironic that the novel that served to diminish Melville's popularity during his lifetime is the one for which he is best known today. Question 3: The main subject of the passage is_________. A. Melville’s travels B. Moby Dick C. Melville’s personal background D. the popularity of Melville’s novels. Question 4: The word “basis” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________. A. background B. message C. bottom D. dissertation Question 5: According to the passage, Melville’s early novels were__________. A. published while he was traveling B. completely fictional C. all about his work on whaling ships D. based on his travel experience Question 6: The passage implies that Melville stayed in Tahiti because____________. A. he had unofficially left his ship B. he was on leave while his ship was in port C. he had finished his term of duty D. he had received permission to take a vacation in Tahiti Question 7: How did the publication of Moby Dick affect Melville’s popularity? A. His popularity remained as strong as ever. B. It caused his popularity to decrease. C. His popularity increased immediately. D. It had no effect on his popularity. Question 8: According to the passage, Moby Dick is__________. A. symbolic of humanity fighting the universe B. a single-faceted work C. a short story about a whale D. a 47 adventure Question 9: In what year did Melville’s book about his experiences as a cabin boy appear? A. 1849 B. 1837 C. 1847 D. 1841 Question 10: The word “metamorphosis” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________. A. descent B. circle C. mysticism D. change Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 11: A. counterpart B. communicate C. attention D. appropriate Question 12: A. reply B. appear C. protect D. order Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The handling and delivery of mail has always been a serious business, underpinned by the trust of the public in requiring timeliness, safety, and confidentiality. After early beginnings using horseback and stagecoach, and although cars and trucks later replaced stagecoaches and wagons, the Railway Mail Service still stands as one of America’s most resourceful and exciting postal innovations. This service began in 1832, but grew slowly until the Civil War. Then from 1862, by sorting the mail on board moving trains, the Post Office Department was able to decentralize its operations as railroads began to crisscross the nation on a regular basis, and speed up mail delivery. This service lasted until 1974. During peak decades of service, railway mail clerks handled 93% of all non-local mail and by 1905 the service had over 12,000 employees. Railway Post Office trains used a system of mail cranes to exchange mail at stations without stopping. As a train approached the crane, a clerk prepared the catcher arm which would then snatch the incoming mailbag in the blink of Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose an eye. The clerk then booted out the outgoing mailbag. Experienced clerks were considered the elite of the Postal Service’s employees, and spoke with pride of making the switch at night with nothing but the curves and feel of the track to warn them of an upcoming catch. They also worked under the greatest pressure and their jobs were considered to be exhausting and dangerous. In addition to regular demands of their jobs they could find themselves the victims of train wrecks and robberies. As successful as it was, “mail-on-the-fly” still had its share of glitches. If they hoisted the train’s catcher arm too soon, they risked hitting switch targets, telegraph poles or semaphores, which would rip the catcher arm off the train. Too late, and they would miss an exchange. Question 13: Which of the following can be inferred from the first paragraph? A. There was a high turnover of railway mail clerks. B. The development of the mail roads during the second half of the 19th century enabled Post Office Department to focus on timeliness. C. The Post Office Department was more concerned about speeding up mail delivery than the safety of its clerks. D. Mail was often lost or damaged as it was exchanged on the mail crane. Question 14: The word “elite” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___________. A. majority B. superior C. more capable D. leader Question 15: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How the mail cranes exchanged the mail. B. Improvements in mail handling and delivery. C. How Post Office Trains handled the mail without stopping. D. The skills of experienced clerks. Question 16: According to the passage, the Railway Mail Service commenced in_________. A. 1874 B. 1842 C. 1832 D. 1905 Question 17: The word “glitches” in the third paragraph can be replaced by________. A. accidents B. blames C. advantages D. problems Question 18: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage? A. The clerk booted out the outgoing mailbag before snatching the incoming bag. B. Clerks couldn’t often see what they were doing. C. The Railway Mail clerk’s job was considered elite because it was safe and exciting. D. Despite their success, railway mail clerks only handled a small proportion of all non-local mail. Question 19: The public expects the following three services in handling and delivery of mail except___. A. safety B. accuracy C. confidentiality D. timeliness Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 20: We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. A. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter. B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes. C. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes. D. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter. Question 21: I listen to Joe patiently until he started insulting me. At this point, I told him a few home truths. A. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, at which point I told him a few home truths. B. I told Joe a few home truths, by which time he started insulting me patiently. C. I told Joe a few home truths after listening to him insulting me patiently. D. I listened to Joe patiently until he started insulting me, in this case I told him a few home truths. Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 22: They asked me what did happen the night before, but I was unable to tell them. A. asked B. did happen C. but D. to tell Question 23: Last year, my little brother got lost when we had gone shopping. A. Last year B. lost C. when D. had gone Question 24: There are more than eighty four million specimens in the National Museum of Natural History’s collection of biological, geological, anthropology treasures. A. specimens B. collection C. anthropology D. treasures Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 25: Becoming an adult and setting up___________ no longer mean the same thing. A. housing B. housework C. household D. housemate Question 26: Tom: Do you know the man talking to our form teacher? Peter: Well, he is the doctor who___________ next to my door some years ago. He___________ abroad and ___________ back. A. lived – had gone – had just come B. lived – went – has just come Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. had lived – went – just came D. lived – had gone – just came Question 27: John contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute___________. A. more fifty dollars B. one other fifty dollars C. the same amount also D. another fifty Question 28: They said they had come back___________. A. the previous day B. the next day C. the following day D. the day after tomorrow Question 29: They asked me___________ in Los Angeles then. A. whether my father had been working B. was my father working C. if my father was working D. whether was my father Question 30: Most young people nowadays believe in ___________ marriage – first come love, then comes marriage.A. romantic B. arranged C. unique D. contractual Question 31: It’s my wish that he ___________here at this room at 5p.m tomorrow. A. will be B. is C. be D. is going to be. Question 32: Unfortunately, not all candidates can be offered a job, some have to be___________. A. required B. rejected C. remained D. resigned Question 33: The proposal will go ahead despite strong___________ from the public. A. objections B. refusals C. resistances D. disagreements Question 34: The rise in energy___________ has led to a reduction of fossil fuels that the world must use. A. redundancy B. consumption C. efficiency D. suitability Question 35: - How much is this car? – 15,000 dollars. My uncle paid for it by___________. A. installments B. credit C. hire purchase D. cash Question 36: My neighbor is ________photographer; let’s ask him for________ advice about color film. A. a - Ø B. the – the C. the - an D. a – the Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 37: -Tom: “I’m sorry. I won’t be able to come.” -Jerry: “____________________________” A. Great! B. Oh, that’s annoying! C. Sounds like fun! D. Well, never mind! Question 38: -Lan: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house.” -Mai: “___________” A. No, dogs are very good, too. B. Yes, I hope so. C. You can say that again. D. Nothing more to say. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 39: It is believed that the plane crash was caused by electrical malfunction of its navigation system. A. breaking through B. breaking in C. breaking down D. breaking up Question 40: Billy, come and give me a hand with cooking. A. be busy B. attempt C. prepare D. help Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) O0PPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 41: John was so insubordinate that he lost his job in one week. A. understanding B. fresh C. obedient D. disobedient Question 42: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual meeting in May.A. rudeness B. measurement C. encouragement D. politeness Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 43: Eight years ago, we started writing to each other. A. We have rarely written to each other for eight years B. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other. C. We have been writing to each other for eight years. D. We wrote to each other eight year ago. Question 44: Keeping calm is the secret of passing the driving test. A. Keep calm or you will pass the driving test. B. As long as you keep calm, you will pass the driving test. C. Unless you keep calm, you will pass the driving test.D. Passing the driving test is without keeping calm. Question 45: “Why don’t you complain to the company, John?” said Peter. A. Peter suggested John to complain to the company. B. Peter advised John complaining to the company. C. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company. D. Peter asked John why he doesn’t complain to the company. Read the passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. In European and North American cultures, body language behaviors can be divided into 2 groups: open or closed and forward or backward. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Open/closed postures are the easiest to (1)__________. People are open to messages when they show open hands, face you fully, and have both feet on the ground. This indicates that they are (2)__________ to listen to what you are saying, even if they are disagreeing with you. When people are closed to messages, they have their arms folded or their legs crossed, and they may turn their bodies away. This body language usually means that people are rejecting your message. Forward or backward behavior reveals an active or a passive (3)__________ to what is being said. If people lean forward with their bodies toward you, they are actively engaged in your message. They may be accepting or rejecting it, but their minds are on (4)__________ you are saying. On the other hand, if people lean back in their chairs or look away from you, or perform activities such as drawing or cleaning their eyeglasses, you know that they are either passively taking in your message or that they are ignoring it. In (5)__________ case, they are not very much engaged in the conversation. Question 46: A. indicate B. do C. refer D. recognize Question 47: A. likely B. reluctant C. able D. willing Question 48: A. reaction B. opinion C. behavior D. knowledge Question 49: A. who B. what C. that D. things Question 50: A. other B. both C. either D. another THE END! PRACTICE TEST 63 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. research B. resent C. resemble D. resist Question 2: A. jumped B. traveled C. stared D. seemed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. economy B. presentation C. accompany D. successfully Question 4: A. deliver B. promotion C. average D. essential Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: Drying food by means of solar energy is an ancient process applying wherever climatic conditions make it possible A. means of B. applying C. Drying D. make it possible Question 6: More and 90 percent of the calcium in the human body is in the skeleton. A. the B. human C. is D. and Question 7: Regardless of your teaching method, the objective of any conversation class should be for the students to practice speaking words. A. objective of any B. speaking words C. should be D. Regardless of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I regret going to the cinema. I wish I ______. A. hadn’t gone there B. haven’t gone there C. didn’t go there D. would not go there Question 9: He may be quick ______ understanding but he isn't capable ______ remembering anything. A. of/at B. at/of C. on/at D. in/of Question 10: Vitamin D is necessary to aid the ______ of calcium from food. A. absorption B. absorbent C. absorbance D. absorbency Question 11: The ______ were told to fasten their seat belts as the plane began its descent. A. flyers B. customers C. passengers D. riders Question 12: I get quite depressed when I think about the damage we are ______ to the environment. A. having B. taking C. making D. causing Question 13: Unfortunately, we’ve made ______. A. little progress B. a few progresses C. little progresses D. few progress Question 14: ______, Mozart was an accomplished compose while still a child. A. Remarkable as it seems B. As it seems remarkable C. No matter remarkable it seems D. Remarkable however it seems Question 15: _____ parents of Thomas claimed that he was at _____ the time of _____ robbery A. The-the-the B. X-X-the C. The-X-the D. X-X-a Question 16: Like most marine mammals and land mammals, whales are ______ creatures. A. blood-warmed B. warm-blood C. warm-blooded D. warm-blooding Question 17: We insist that more money ______ in education. A. investing B. invested C. invests D. be invested Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 18: Certainly, man must ______ the future, and find ways of providing for his need. A. look for B. put off C. put on D. look to Question 19: After I ______ from college, I ______ as a teacher. A. had graduated/ worked B. had graduated/ work C. graduate/ work D. graduated/ worked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: John: “You’re already leaving? The ball is only starting.” Mary: “But it is very late, so ______.” A. it’s great fun B. take care C. goodbye for now D. have a good day Question 21: Daisy: “______?” Mary: “No, that’s about it for now.” A. Nothing to declare B. When can we stop C. Anything else D. What’s on your mind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Such problems as haste and inexperience are a universal feature of youth. A. marked B. hidden C. shared D. separated Question 23: I stayed there with her for a while before I left. A. in the difficult time B. whenever she needed me C. for relaxation D. for a short period of time Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: I am glad that we see eye to eye on the matter of the conference location. A. dislike B. agree C. disagree D. approve Question 25: I don’t want to live in this filthy colony. A. dirty B. pretty C. nice D. clean Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: Apart from being conveniently located near the beach, that hotel has nothing about it to make me recommend it to you. A. The only feature of that hotel that I can recommend to you is that it’s close to the beach. B. The hotel I’ve recommended to you is very comfortable as it is near the beach. C. The beach near that hotel doesn’t have anything special that I can recommend to you. D. As regards a hotel, nothing is more important for me than its being close to the beach. Question 27: Although she was very old, she looked very grateful. A. In spite of very old, she looked very grateful. B. Despite she was very old, she looked very grateful. C. Despite her old age, she looked very grateful. D. In spite her being old, she looked very grateful. Question 28: “Why don’t you ask your parents for advice?” said Tom. A. Tom advised me asking my parents for advice. B. Tom said to me to ask my parents for advice. C. Tom wanted to know the reason why I don’t ask my parents for advice. D. Tom suggested that I ask my parents for advice. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Farmers depend on meteorologists. They need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. A. Due to meteorologists’ accurate forecasts, farmers depend on them for successful agricultural planning. B. Farmers depend on meteorologists who need their accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning. C. Farmers need meteorologists’ accurate forecasts for successful agricultural planning and so they depend on you. D. Farmers depend on meteorologists, whose accurate forecasts they need for successful agricultural planning. Question 30: Sports clear my mind. They also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle. A. My mind is cleared so is the maintenance of a healthy lifestyle. B. Not only do sports clear my mind, but they also help me maintain a healthy lifestyle. C. Sports clear my mind so that I can maintain a healthy lifestyle. D. All that sports can do is to clear my mind instead of maintaining a healthy lifestyle. Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 31 to 35. Swim, Cycle, and Run For athletes who like to (31)______a variety of endurance sports in a single race, triathlons are a great fit. These competitions (32) ______running, cycling, and swimming into one race, and they take place one after the other in a single continuous timed race. Athletes who participate must be in top physical form and have the skills needed to complete each portion of the race. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Training for triathlons means the athletes have to become proficient not only in the sport required in each stage, but they also have to become familiar with what (33) _____from one to the other does to their bodies. Many inexperienced triathletes are surprised to (34) ______hard it can be to switch from swimming to cycling to running, and how tired their muscles can suddenly feel. One thing all triathletes can agree (35) ______is that no one ever told them that running a triathlon would be easy. Question 31: A. compete B. compete in C. contest D. take part Question 32: A. combine B. join C. fasten D. connect Question 33: A. transference B. transition C. transmission D. transport Question 34: A. find what B. find out why C. find out how D. find how Question 35: A. in B. with C. at D. on Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Productivity Hacks for Great Success No matter who we are or where we are from, we only have 24 hours each day to get things done. Some people seem to make the most of their time, using it to achieve their goals and dreams. Others feel that life is passing them by and they aren’t accomplishing anything. If you are in the latter group, it is not too late to turn things around. By implementing a few simple hacks, you can start getting better results very quickly. If you want to become more productive, it pays to learn about the Pareto principle (which is also known as the 80-20 rule). It states that for most tasks, 80 percent of the results we get come from 20 percent of the work we do. For example. 80 percent of the company sales usually come from 20 percent of customers. Therefore, the trick is to focus your efforts on the key 20 percent of actions that truly matter to greatly improve your results. In some cases, people may be busy from morning to night but still seem to get nothing done. In this situation, the problem might be that clear goals haven’t been set. To fix this, set some time aside to list the things you want to achieve in life. Then, select the top three or four that you want to focus on for the next year. Look at your goals every night before bedtime and ask yourself what are the next actions to accomplish each day. Then, promise yourself that you will finish these tasks no matter how busy you get. If possible try completing the tasks first thing in the morning so you are assured of success. Another common mistake regarding productivity is not considering our energy levels. If we try to work around the clock, we will eventually get tired and quit. Everyone needs time to sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and unwind from the stress of the day. To make sure you don’t burn out, be sure to schedule some time for breaks and fun activities into your schedule every day. Finally, no matter how difficult your goals may seem, remember the old saying that “a journey of a thousand miles begins with a single step”. Question 36: What is implied in the last sentence of the passage? A. It is best to take a big first step. B. Start moving toward your dreams little by little. C. Think twice before taking any steps. D. People get their best ideas when traveling. Question 37: In order to achieve our goals, we should______. A. select the most important goals for each day and take the priority to achieve them within the day. B. eat a lot to burn enough energy for our daily activities. C. set the goals just before bedtime in order to remember them better. D. set as many goals as possible so that we can achieve some of them or at least 20 percent. Question 38: Which of the following statements does the author support most? A. How difficult our goals may seem, we should take steps to travel a thousand miles to achieve them. B. Reasonable goals and good techniques of time management may help you get great achievements. C. We try to work around the clock and set some time aside to list the things we want to achieve in life. D. We need time to sleep, eat, socialize with friends, and achieve our goals for 20 percent of the day’s time. Question 39: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to______. A. a lack of time B. setting no aims C. clear goals D. failing in business Question 40: he phrase “hacks for” in the title is closest in meaning to______. A. leads to B. cut off C. secretly achieve D. kicks without control Question 41: Which of the following sentences is true? A. No one ever achieves all of their goals. B. Everyone has the same time in a day. C. No one has any spare time these days. D. Everyone manages time the same way. Question 42: What is the Pareto principle? A. If you work hard 80 percent of the time, you can relax for 20 percent. B. You need to do lots of work to increase sales by 20 percent. C. A few important things produce most of the results. D. Companies don’t need to hire more than 80 people. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Carbon dating can be used to estimate the age of any organic natural material; it has been used successfully in archeology to determine the age of ancient artifacts or fossils as well as in a variety of other fields. The principle underlying the use of carbon dating is that carbon is a part of all living things on Earth. Since a radioactive substance such as carbon-14 has a known half-life, the amount of carbon-14 remaining in an object can be used to date that object. Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5,570 years, which means that after that number of years, half of the carbon- 14 atoms have decayed into nitrogen-14. It is the ratio of carbon-14 in that substance that indicates the age of the substance. If, for example, in a particular sample the amount of carbon-14 is roughly equivalent to the amount of nitrogen-14, this indicates that around half of the carbon-14 has decayed into nitrogen-14, and the sample is approximately 5,570 years old. Carbon dating cannot be used effectively in dating objects that are older than 80,000 years. When objects are that old, much of the carbon-14 has already decayed into nitrogen-14, and the molecule amount that is left doesn’t provide a reliable measurement of age. In the case of older objects, other age-dating methods are available, methods which use radioactive atoms with longer half-lives than carbon has. Question 43: This passage is mainly about______. A. archeology and the study of ancient artifacts. B. one method of dating old objects. C. various uses for carbon. D. the differences between carbon-14 and nitrogen-14. Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about carbon-14? A. It and nitrogen always exist in equal amounts in any substance. B. Its half-life is more than 5,000 years. C. It can decay into nitrogen-14. D. It is radioactive. Question 45: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to______. A. carbon dating B. the age C. any organic natural material D. archeology Question 46: The word “underlying” could best be replaced by______. A. below B. requiring C. serving as a basis for D. being studied through Question 47: The word “roughly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______. A. precisely B. harshly C. approximately D. coarsely Question 48: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses______. A. what substances are part of all living things. B. how carbon-14 decay intonitrogen.-14 C. why carbon-14 has such a long half-life. D. various other age-dating methods. Question 49: It is implied in the passage that______. A. carbon dating has no known uses outside of archeology. B. fossils cannot be age-dated using carbon-14. C. carbon dating could not be used on an item containing nitrogen. D. carbon-14 does not have the longest known half-life. Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that if an item contains more carbon-14 than nitrogen-14, then the item is______. A. not as much as 5,570 years old B. too old to be age-dated with carbon-14 C. too radioactive to be used by archeologists D. more than 5.570 years old THE END! PRACTICE TEST 64 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 1: Ann: “Passing a university entrance exam is not difficult.” John: “_______.” A. I couldn’t agree more. It is not easy at all. B. But I don’t. I failed it last year. C. I do, too. I passed it last year. D. You must be kidding. It’s not easy. Question 2: Mary: “Our team has just won that English Competition.” Anne: “_______.” A. Good ideas. Thanks for the news. B. Well, that’s very surprising. C. Yes, I guess it’s very good D. Yes, it’s our pleasure Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Facebook is a for-profit online social media and social networking service. The Facebook website was launched on February 4th, 2004 by Mark Zuckerberg, along with fellow Harvard College students and roommates. Since 2006, anyone age 13 and older has been allowed to become a registered user of Facebook though variations exist in minimum age requirement, depending on applicable local laws. Over 25 million people in the Uk use Facebook. That’s 45% of population! And on average, each user spends over six hours a month on Facebook. Though not the highest this is a considerable number. Is Facebook is a dangerous Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose obsession or just harmless fun? Seventeen-year-old Bethan has written on her blog about what it was like to stop using Facebook. I think I am a Facebook addict. I log on to Facebook everyday to chat to my friends real friends and loads of online friends. Sometimes I have ten conversations going at the same time. I upload photos and update my Facebook profile all the time. But recently I’ve started to feel worried if I am offline for more than a few hours. And then last week I forgot to meet a real friend because I was online! I’ve realised I could have a problem. So I’ve decided to give it up for a while. I found it really hard. Facebook and my friends demanded to know why I had left. I spent the first few evenings wondering what everyone was chatting on Facebook. I even phoned a couple of friends to find out. The fourth night I wasn’t quite so bad. I actually concentrated on my homework better and I had more time to watch my TV programmes. And I spoke to my friends during the day at school. At the end of the first week, I reactivated my account, I think Facebook is fun and it’s useful for posting messages to friends and sharing photos. But I’ll try not to spend so much time on it in the future. Question 3: Which of the following is NOT true about Facebook users in UK? A. 45% of the country’s population used Facebook. B. More than 25 millions of Brits use Facebook. C. The amount of time British users spent on Facebook is highest. D. Averagely, 6 hours per month are spent by British users. Question 4: The highlight word “it” in the passage refers to _________. A. worrying B. facebook C. a problem D. meeting her real friend Question 5: Facebook _________. A. was non-profitable. B. was launched solely by Mark Zuckerberg. C. follows each country’s regulation. D. can be used by people of all ages. Question 6: Which of the following is NOT the thing Bethan does as a Facebook addict? A. be curious about Facebook activities when logging out. B. have numerous online conversation at the same time. C. use Facebook everyday D. long to be offline nearly all the time. Question 7: The word “applicable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________. A. different B. unsuitable C. relevant D. opposite Question 8: What does Bethan conclude about Facebook? A. The best use of Facebook is to share photos and messages.B. Facebook is not as good as TV. C. Users should spend more time on Facebook. D. Facebook is great as long as not too much time is spent on. Question 9: What happened to make Bethan decide to quit Facebook for a while? A. She forgot an offline meeting B. She started to feel nervous C. She had too many offline friends D. She uploaded too many photos Question 10: When she decided to give up Facebook _________. A. her friends didn’t care much B. she found it too difficult to continue C. she made progress after some days D. she couldn’t focus on her homework Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 11: A. physical B. mischievous C. romantic D. suitable Question 12: A. contribute B. accompany C. volunteer D. eliminate Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answerof each following questions. Question 13: “You stole my best cassette, Bob.” said Willy. A. Willy accused Bob on stealing his best cassette. B. Willy accused Bob for stealing his best cassette. C. Willy accused Bob at stealing his best cassette. D. Willy accused Bob of stealing his best cassette. Question 14: If you don’t have his number, you can’t phone him. A. You can phone him unless you have his number. B. You can’t phone him unless you have his number. C. You can phone him unless you don’t have his number. D. You can’t phone him unless you don’t have his number. Question 15: There are many things I want for Christmas. Some are clothes, toys and money. A. Clothes, toys and money are all the things I want for Christmas. B. If there are clothes, toys and money, I want them for Christmas. C. Although I want many things for Christmas, I have clothes, toys and money. D. There are many things I want for Christmas, including clothes, toys and money. Question 16: Tom and May never help at home. The reason is because their mother never asks to. A. Tom and May never help at home and their mother never asks to. B. Tom and May never help at home because their mother never asks to. C. Tom and May never help at home so their mother never asks to. D. In order not to help at home by Tom and May, their mother never asks. Question 17: Mr Pike is repairing the refrigerator in the kitchen at the moment. A. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen at the moment by Mr Pike. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose B. The refrigerator is repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment. C. The refrigerator is being repaired in the kitchen by Mr Pike at the moment. D. The refrigerator is being repaired at the moment by Mr Pike in the kitchen. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions: Question 18: A. return B. human C. university D. future Question 19: A. looked B. stopped C. stopped D. watched Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions: Question 20: A lot of rice were exported to France last year. A. were B. to C. A lot of D. exported Question 21: If you think carefully before making your decision, you will avoid to get into trouble later. A. to get B. later C. carefully D. making Question 22: The books writing by Mark Twain are very popular in the world. A. very B. by C. in D. writing Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following. Question 23: The teacher gave some suggestions on what would come out for the examination. A. symptoms B. demonstrations C. effects D. hints Question 24: When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking you. A. relate on B. be interested in C. impress on D. pay attention to Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduce our motivation to work. A. calm B. uncomfortable C. miserable D. responsive Question 26: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at annual meeting in May. A. encouragement B. rudeness C. measurement D. politeness Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide children with an (27) ________ of their own abilities and the self-confidence to use their abilities. One approach recognised by many (28) ________ as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practised by Maria Montessori of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with (29) ________ the method in the United States, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools. The method helps children learn for themselves by (30) ________ them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of touch and learn (31) ________ to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music, and art. Question 27: A. awareness B. attitude C. attention D. knowledge Question 28: A. researcher B. teacher C. tutors D. experts Question 29: A. popular B. popularity C. popularize D. popularizing Question 30: A. giving B. instructing C. sending D. providing Question 31: A. how B. what C. that D. which Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like vulture to a dying animal. Researchers with the US Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists, most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50-hertz to 50-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect no more than 20 kilohertz). Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form of vibrations at the surface of the wood. The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water columns inside tubes that run along the length of the tree break, a result of too little water following through them. These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration pattems. Because some insects communicate at ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees' vibration and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so insects could be responding to something other than sound”, one scientist said. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 32: All the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT ________ .A. thermal changes B. sounds C. changes in color D. smells Question 33: It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees _________ A. has been unproductive up to now B. is no longer sponsored by the government C. was conducted many years ago D. is continuing Question 34: Which of the following could be considered a cause of the distress signals of trees? A. attacks by insects B. experiments by scientists C. torn roots D. lack of water Question 35: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage? A. The effect of insects on trees. B. The vibrations produced by insects. C. The mission of the U.S Forest Service. D. The sounds made by trees. Question 36: The word “plight” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________ . A. condition B. cry C. need D. agony Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees ________ . A. are the same no matter what type of tree produces them B. cannot be heard by the unaided human ear C. fall into the 1-20 kilohertz D. serve as a form of communication among trees Question 38: The word “parched” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________ . A. dehydrated B. recovered C. damaged D. burned Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions: Question 39: I met a lot of new people at the party ________ names I can’t remember. A. whose B. who C. whom D. which Question 40: The chart ________ the massive amount of food consumed by the young in 2015. A. occupies B. illustrates C. behinds D. predicts Question 41: When Mrs Parker _______ home from work, her son was doing his homework. A. was coming B. came C. comes D. has come Question 42: ________ more carefully, he would not have had the accident yesterday. A. Unless he had not driven B. If had Peter driven C. Had Peter driven D. If Peter has driven Question 43: . It’s necessary for students to listen to their teacher ________. A. attend B. attentive C. attentively D. attention Question 44: The flights ________ last year because of the thick fog. A. were being cancelled B. cancelled C. had been cancelled D. were cancelled Question 45: Being well-dressed and punctual can help you create a good ________ on your interviewer. A. pressure B. impression C. effectiveness D. employment Question 46: I’m going ________ for a few days so don’t send me any more work. A. in B. away C. after D. over Question 47: If I ________ taller, I ________ better at basketball. A. am - will be B. were - might be C. be - would be D. were - would have been Question 48: It is desirable that everyone _____ a flat in the city and a villa in the countryside. A. is having B. has C. have D. has had Question 49: Before cars ________, people ________ horses and bicycles. A. were discovering/has used B. discovered/used C. were discovered/had used D. was discovered/had used Question 50: Many young people want to work for a humanitarian organization, ________? A. didn’t they B. doesn’t it C. don’t they D. does it THE END!
Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 65 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each or the following questions. Question 1: A. educate B. engineer C. acceptable D. department Question 2: A. future B. picture C. culture D. turn Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. habitat B. inflation C. disease D. remove Question 4: A. complete B. command C. common D. D.community Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: They asked me (A)how long (B) did it take to (C) get to Paris (D) by train. A. how long B. did it take C. get to D. by train Question 6: (A) After driving for twenty miles., he (B) suddenly realized that he (C) has been driving (D) in the wrong direction. A. After driving B. suddenly realized C. has been driving D. in the wrong direction Question 7: (A)Because the Red Cross (B) accepts blood from most donors, the nurses will not let you (C) give blood if you have just (D) had a cold. A. Because B. accepts C. give D. had Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be ______ before the deadline, often in April. A. issued B. signed C. filed D. submitted Question 9: He walked______ I could not catch up with him. A. fast B. so fast that C. as fast as D. faster than Question 10: It is high time we______ something to protect our environment A. do B. to do C. did D. have done Question 11: The more______ you are, the easier it is for you to make friends. A. reserved B. funny C. sociable D. social Question 12: I can______ with most things but I cannot stand noisy children. A. put up B. put on C. put aside D. put off Question 13: Neither the students nor their lecturer______ English in the classroom. A. use B. are using C. uses D. have used Question 14: ______ she can buy everything she likes. A. So rich is she that B. So rich she is that C. Such rich is she that D. All are right Question 15: This is the second time______. A. you are losing your door key. B. you've lost your door key. C. you were losing your door key. D. your door key was lost by you. Question 16: The man______is very friendly. A. that lives next door B. who live next door C. which lives next door D. who lives the next door Question 17: Universities send letters of______to successful candidates by post. A. accept B. acceptable C. acceptably D. acceptance Question 18: If you do not learn seriously, ______to understand the subject well. A. you will never be able B. will you never be able C. never you will be able D. will never you be able Question 19: His research has not been able to be ______because of a financial difficulty. A. set up B. put off C. turned on D. carried out Question 20: - Tim: “Let's go to Fuji for our summer holiday!”. - Tom:“______”. A. How about you? B. What's the matter C. Not at all D. OK. It sounds good Question 21: - Lora.: “Sorry, the manager is not here”. -Jane:“______”. A. Can I take a message then. B. Can I speak to the manager, please? C. Would you like to leave a message. D. Can I leave a message then. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: He's really delighted with his success. A. pleased B. angry C. entertained D. annoyed Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 23: Try to eliminate fatty foods from your diet. A. limit B. move C. add D. get rid of Mark the letter A, B C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Those clothes are inappropriate for this morning. A. improper B. attractive C. suitable D. available Question 25: She is a very. generous woman. She has given most of her wealth to a charity organization. A. mean B. amicable C. kind D. hospitable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that Is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: People say that he gets a high salary. A. It is said that he gets a high salary. B. It is said for him to get high salary. C. He is said that he gets a high salary. D. That he gets a high salary is said. Question 27: It’s high time you started revising for the coming exam. A. I think you should start revising for the coming exam right now. B. Revising for the coming exam takes your time. C. It’s time to come to the exam after revising. D. The time is high because you started revising for the coming exam. Question 28: This film is interesting but the film we saw last week was more interesting. A. The film we saw last week was as interesting as this one. B. The film we saw last week was less interesting than this one. C. The film we saw last week was more interesting as this one. D. The film we saw last week was more interesting than this one. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: The weather was very hot. They continued playing football. A. Although the hot weather, they continued playing football. B. In spite of the hot weather, they continued playing football. C. In spite of the weather was hot, they continued playing football. D. Despite the weather was hot, they continued playing football. Question 30: She helped us a lot with our project. We couldn't continue without her. A. Provided her contribution wouldn't come, we couldn't have continued with the project. B. Unless we had her contribution, we couldn't have continued with the project. C. If she hadn't contributed positively, we couldn't have continued with the project. D. But for her contribution, we could have continued with the project. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to in the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Singapore has a highly developed market-based economy, (31) ______historically revolves around extended trade. Along with Hong Kong, South Korea and Taiwan, Singapore is one (32) ______The Four Asian Tigers. The economy depends heavily on exports , refining, imported goods, especially in manufacturing. Manufacturing constituted 26 (33) ______of Singapore's GDP in 2005. The manufacturing industry is well-diversified into electronics, petroleum refining, chemicals, (34) ______engineering and biomedical sciences manufacturing. In 2006. Singapore produced about 10 percent of the world’s foundry water output. Singapore is the busiest port in the world in terms of tonnage shipped. Singapore is the world's fourth largest foreign exchange trading centre after London, New York City (35) ______Tokyo. Question 31: A. who B. whom C. why D. which Question 32: A. of B. in C. for D. at Question 33: A. percentage B. persuasion C. perception D. percent Question 34: A. machine B. mechanical C. mechanically D. mechanic Question 35: A. and B. but C. or D. so Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each ofthe questions from 36 to 42. American movies create myths about college life in the United States. These stories are entertaining, but they are not true. You have to look beyond Hollywood movies to understand what college is really like. Thanks to the movies, many people believe that college students party and socialize more than they study. Movies almost never show students working hard in class or in the library. Instead, movies show them eating, talking, hanging out, or dancing to loud music at wild parties. While it is true that American students have the freedom to participate in activities, they also have academic responsibilities. In order to succeed, they have to attend classes and study hard. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Another movie myth is that athletics is the only important extracurricular activity. In fact, there is a wide variety of nonacademic activities on campus such as special clubs, service organizations, art, and theater programs. This variety allows students to choose what interests them. Even more important, after graduation, students' résumés look better to employers if they list a few extracurricular activities. Most students in the movies can easily afford higher education. If only this were true! While it is true that some American college students are wealthy, most are from families with moderate incomes. Up to 80% of them get some type of financial aid. Students from middle and lower-income families often work part-time throughout their college years. There is one thing that many college students have in common, but it is not something you will see in the movies. They have parents who think higher education is a priority, a necessary and important part of their children's lives. Movies about college life usually have characters that are extreme in some way: super athletic, super intelligent, super wealthy, super glamorous, etc. Movies use these stereotypes, along with other myths of romance and adventure because audiences like going to movies that include these elements. Of course, real college students are not like movie characters at all. So the next time you want a taste of the college experience, do not go to the movies. Look at some college websites or brochures instead. Take a walk around your local college campus. Visit a few classes. True, you may not be able to see the same people or exciting action you will see in the movies, but you can be sure that there are plenty of academic adventures going on all around you. Question 36: The story about college life in Amerian movies are not ______. A. true B. interesting C. boring D. exciting Question 37: The phrase “academic responsibilities” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. learning duties B. training skills C. caring professions D. teaching methods Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true? A. Learning is only part of students’ college life. B. There is a wide choice of extracurricular activities for college students. C. Extracurricular activities are of no importance to employers. D. Not all extracurricular activities are students' academic responsibilities. Question 39: The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to ______. A. employers B. activities C. colleges D. résumés Question 40: The word “moderate” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. not high B. unlimited C. not steady D. sensible Question 41: Many American students have to work part-time throughout their college years because ______. A. they are not allowed to work full-time. B. they want to gain experience. C. their parents force them to. D. they can earn money for their expenses. Question 42: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Going to College: The Only Way to Succeed in Life B. Hollywood Movies: The Best About College Life. C. Extracurricular Activities and Job Opportunities. D. American College Life and the Movies. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The need for a surgical operation, especially an emergency operation, almost always comes as a severe shock to the patient and his family. Despite modern advances, most people still have an irrational fear of hospitals and anaesthetics. Patients do riot often believe they really need surgery- cutting into a part of the body as opposed to treatment with drugs. In the early year of the 20th century, there was little specialization in surgery. A good surgeon was capable of performing almost every operation that had been advised up to that time. Today the situation is different. Operations are now being carried out that were not even dreamed of fifty years ago. The heart can be safely opened and its valves repaired. Cloyed blood vessels can be clean out, and broken ones mended and replaced. A lung, the whole stomach, or even part of the brain can be removed and still permit the patient to live a comfortable and satisfactory life. However, not every surgeon wants to, or is qualified to carry out every type of modern operation. The scope of surgery has increase remarkable in the past decades. Its safety has increased, too. Deaths from most operations are about 20% of what they were in 1910 and surgery has been extended in many directions, for example, to certain types of birth defects in new born babies, and at the other end of the scale, to life-saving operation for the octogenarian .The hospital stay after surgery has been shortened to as little as a week for most major operations. Most patients are out of bed on the day after an operation and may be back at work in two or three weeks. One of the most revolutionary areas of modern surgery is that of organ transplants. Until a few decades ago, no person, except an identical twins, was able to accept into his body the tissues of another person without reacting against them and eventually killing them. Recently, however, it has been discovered that with the use of X-rays and special drugs, it is possible to graft tissues from one person to another which will survive for periods of a year or Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose more. Kidneys have been successfully transplanted between non-identical twins. Heart and lung transplants have also been reasonably successful. “Spare parts” surgery, the simple routine replacement of all worn-out organs by new ones, is still a dream of the future but surgery is ready for such miracles. In the meantime, you can be happy if the doctors say to you: “Yes, l think it is possible to operate on you for this condition”. Question 43: Most people are afraid of being operated on______. A. in spite of improvements in modem surgery. B. because they think modern drugs are dangerous. C. because they do not believe they need anesthetics. D. unless it is an emergency operation. Question 44: Surgeons in the early 20th century compared with modern ones ______. A. had less to learn about surgery. B. needed more knowledge. C. were more trusted by their patients. D. could perform every operation known today. Question 45: A patient can still live a comfortable life even after the removal of______. A. his brain. B. a major organ such as the stomach or one lung. C. his lungs. D. part of the stomach or the whole liver. Question 46: The word “clogged” is most likely to correspond to______. A. clean B. blocked C. covered D. unwashed Question 47: Today, compared with 1910______. A. 20% fewer of all operation patients die. B. 20% of all operation patients recover. C. operation deaths have increased by 20% D. five times fewer patients die after being operated on. Question 48: What is the similar meaning to the word “octogenarian”? A. eighteen-year-old. B. person in his eighties. C. person having eighth operation. D. eye specialist. Question 49: The main difficulty with organ transplants is______. A. it is difficult to find organs of the same size. B. only identical twins can give permission for their organs to be exchanged. C. the body's tendency to reject alien tissues. D. the patient is not allowed to use drugs after them. Question 50: You can be happy if your surgeon can operate because it means______. A. he thinks your condition may be curable. B. he is a good doctor. C. he knows you will survive. D. you are getting better already. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 66 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 1: - Anne: “Do you like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “_______.” A. That would be great B. You’re welcome C. I feel very bored D. I don’t agree. I’m afraid Question 2: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary.” - “_______.” A. Thank you for your compliment B. Thank you very much. I’m afraid C. You’re telling a lie D. I don’t like your sayings Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 3: When he passes the entrance exam, his parents will be walking on air. A. extremely happy B. extremely light C. feeling extremely unhappy D. feeling extremely airy Question 4: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time. A. put down B. turn down C. slown down D. lie down Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: Water and fresh air are very necessary for every living thing. A. different B. essential C. successful D. expensive Question 6: Too many people were unemployed, and the economy got into trouble. A. out of sight B. out of question C. out of work D. out of order Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Question 7: The book is very interesting. My brother bought it yesterday. A. The book which is very interesting my brother bought yesterday. B. The book which my brother bought it yesterday is not interesting. C. The book my brother bought it yesterday is very interesting. D. The book which my brother bought yesterday is very interesting. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 8: Although she couldn’t speak English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester. A. Despite of speaking no English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester. B. In spite of the inability to speak English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester. C. Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester even she didn’t speak English. D. Although no speaking English, Ngoc decided to settle in Manchester. Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 9: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price increased much. A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase. B. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand. C. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price increased much. D. It was its price that decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century. Question 10: He started to study at 2 o’clock. He is still studying now. A. He has been studying since 2 o’clock. B. He has been studying for 2 hours. C. He was studying since 2 o’clock. D. He usually studies for 2 hours. Question 11: “It’s a surprising gift. Thank you very much, Mary.” said Mr Pike. A. Mr Pike promised to give Mary a surprising gift.B. Mr Pike congratulated Mary on a surprising gift. C. Mr Pike thanked Mary though he did not really like gift. D. Mr Pike thanked Mary for the surprising gift. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 12: Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily. A. Bill is often B. for C. which D. angrily Question 13: If you work hard, you would be successful in anything you do. A. hard B. would be C. in D. anything Question 14: Manufacturers may use food additives for preserving, to color, or to flavor, or to fortify foods. A. may use B. for preserving C. to flavor D. to fortify foods Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 15: A. home B. vehicles C. honest D. hour Question 16: A. finished B. played C. influenced D. helped Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 17: A. calculation B. photography C. economics D. conservation Question 18: A. doctor B. birthday C. concert D. address Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 19: The girls and flowers _________ he painted were vivid. A. whom B. that C. which D. who Question 20: She showed us the gift she had got, which was a _________ pencil box. A. red beautiful wooden B. beautiful red wooden C. wooden red beautiful D. beautiful wooden red Question 21: The rumours go that Jason will be arrested. He is said _________ part in a bloody robbery. A. to take B. taking C. having taken D. to have taken Question 22: Your English is improving considerably. It is getting _________. A. better and better B. well and better C. good and better D. good and well Question 23: Many children are under such a high _________ of learning that they do not feel happy at school. A. pressure B. interview C. recommendation D. concentration Question 24: Domestic appliances like washing machines and dishwashers have made _________ life much easier. A. a B. the C. Ø D. an Question 25: She _________ working on that manuscript for 2 years now. A. has been B. is C. will be D. had been Question 26: There is a rumor that the National Bank is going to _________ the company I work for. A. take on B. take over C. take out of D. take off Question 27: It was _________ that we decided to stay indoors. A. such a hot day B. so a hot day C. so a day hot D. such a day hot Question 28: Travelling to _________ countries in the world enables me to learn many interesting things. A. differently B. different C. difference D. differ Question 29: Neither the students nor their lecturer _________ English in the classroom. A. use B. are using C. have used D. uses Question 30: One condition of this work is that you must be _________ to work at weekends. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. capable B. available C. acceptable D. accessible Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. To many people, their friends are the most important in their life. Really good friends always (31) __________ joys and sorrows with you and never turn their backs on you. Your best friend maybe someone you have known all your life or someone you have grown (32) __________ with. There are all sorts of things that can (33) __________ about this special relationship. It maybe the result of enjoying the same activities and sharing experiences. Most of us have met someone that we have immediately felt relaxed with as if we had known them for ages. (34) __________ , it really takes you years to get to know someone well enough to consider your best friend. To the (35) __________ of us, this is someone we trust completely and who understans us better than anyone else. It's the person you can tell him or her your most intimate secrets. Question 31: A. have B. share C. give D. spend Question 32: A. up B. through C. on D. in Question 33: A. provide B. bring C. cause D. result Question 34: A. Therefore B. In addition C. However D. Yet Question 35: A. majority B. majorially C. majorial D. major Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the 1960s, The Beatles were probably the most famous pop group in the whole world. Since then, there havebeen a great many groups that have achieved enormous fame, so it is perhaps difficult now to imagine how sensational The Beatles were at that time. They were four boys from the north of England and none of them had any training in music. They started by performing and recording songs by black Americans and they had some success with these songs. Then they started writing their own songs and that was when they became really popular. The Beatles changed pop music. They were the first pop group to achieve great success from songs they had written themselves. After that it became common for groups and singers to write their own songs. The Beatles did not have a long career. Their first hit record was in 1963 and they split up in 1970. They stopped doing live performances in 1966 because it had become too dangerous for them - their fans were so excited that they surrounded them and tried to take their clothes as souvenirs! However, today some of their songs remain as famous as they were when they first came out. Throughout the world, many people can sing part of a Beatles song if you ask them. Question 36: The passage is mainly about __________. A. why the Beatles split up after 7 years B. the Beatles' fame and success C. many people's ability to sing a Beatles song D. how the Beatles became more successful than other groups Question 37: The four boys of the Beatles __________. A. came from the same family B. were at the same age C. came from a town in the north of England D. received good training in music Question 38: The word “sensational” is closest in meaning to __________. A. notorious B. shocking C. bad D. popular Question 39: The first songs of the Beatles were __________. A. written by black American B. broadcast on the radio C. paid a lot of money D. written by themselves Question 40: What is NOT TRUE about the Beatles? A. The members had no training in music. B. They became famous when they wrote their own songs. C. They had a long stable career. D. They were afraid of being hurt by fans. Question 41: The Beatles stopped their live performances because __________. A. they had earned enough money B. they did not want to work with each other C. they spent more time writing their own songs D. they were afraid of being hurt by fan Question 42: The word “they” in line 10 refers to __________. A. the first B. the singers C. the songs D. the performances Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In the history of technology, computers and calculators were innovative developments. They are essentially different from all other machines because they have a memory. This memory stores instructions and information. In a calculator, the instructions are the various functions of arithmetic, which are permanently remembered by the machine and cannot be altered or added to. The information consists of the numbers keyed in. An electronic pocket calculator can perform almost instant arithmetic. A calculator requires an input unit to feed in numbers, a processing unit to make the calculation, a memory unit, and an output unit to display the result. The calculator is powered by a small battery or by a panel of solar cells. Inside is a microchip that contains the memory and processing units and also controls the input unit, which is the keyboard, and the output unit, which is the display. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose The input unit has keys for numbers and operations. Beneath the key is a printed circuit board containing a set of contacts for each key. Pressing a key closes the contacts and sends a signal along a pair of lines in the circuit board to the processing unit, in which the binary code for that key is stored in the memory. The processing unit also sends the code to the display. Each key is connected by a different pair of lines to the processing unit, which repeatedly checks the lines to find out when a pair is linked by a key. The memory unit stores the arithmetic instructions for the processing unit and holds the temporary results that occur during calculation. Storage cells in the memory unit hold the binary codes for the keys that have been pressed. The number codes, together with the operation code for the plus key, are held in temporary cells until the processing unit requires them. When the equals key is pressed, it sends a signal to the processing unit. This takes the operation code-for example, addition-and the two numbers being held in the memory unit and performs the operation on the two numbers. A full adder does the addition, and the result goes to the decoder in the calculator's microchip. This code is then sent to the liquid crystal display unit, which shows the result, or output, of the calculation. Question 43: The word "innovative" in line 1 could best be replaced by _________. A. recent B. important C. revolutionary D. complicated Question 44: What can be inferred about machines that are not calculators or computers? A. They can not store information in a memory. B. They are less expensive than computers. C. They have simple memory and processing units. D. They are older than computers. Question 45: In what part of the calculator are the processing and memory units? A. the battery B. the solar cells C. the output unit D. the microchip Question 46: According to the passage, one function of the memory unit is _________. A. to control the keyboard B. to store temporary results during calculation C. to send codes to the display unit D. to alter basic arithmetic instructions Question 47: The word "This" in paragraph 5 refers to _________. A. the plus key B. the processing unit C. the memory unit D. the equals key Question 48: The word "contacts" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. A. commands B. codes C. locations D. connections Question 49: Which of the following could NOT be said about calculators? A. The calculator's "thinking" takes place in the processing and memory units. B. Calculators require a lot of instructions to operate quickly. C. Calculators and computers are similar. D. Pressing a key activates a calculator. Question 50: What is the main purpose of the passage? A. To discuss innovative developments in technology B. To compare computers and calculators with other machines C. To summarize the history of technology D. To explain how a calculator works THE END! PRACTICE TEST 67 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1: The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the rain. A. is beginning B. wooden C. surrounded D. because of Question 2: The amount of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the amount of water vapor vary considerably. A. vary B. almost always C. The amount of D. stable Question 3: Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees. A. are B. bark of trees C. derived of D. other useful substances Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A lot of advice is available for college leavers heading for their first job. In this article we consider the move to a second job. We are not concerned with those looking for a second temporary position while hunting for a permanent job. Nor are we concerned with those leaving an unsatisfactory job within the first few weeks. Instead, we will be dealing with those of you taking a real step on the career ladder, choosing a job to fit in with your ambitions now that you have learnt your way around, acquired some skills and have some idea of where you want to go. What sort of job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask yourself whether you want to specialize in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility or out of your current employment into a broader field. Whatever you decide, you should choose your second job very carefully. You should be aiming to stay in it for two or three years. This job will be studied very carefully when you send your letter of application for your next job. It should show evidence of serious career planning. Most important, it should extend you, develop you and give you increasing responsibility. Incidentally, if you are interested in traveling, now is the time to pack up and go. You can Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose do temporary work for a while when you return, pick up where you left off and get the second job then. Future potential employers will be relieved to see that you have got it out of your system, and are not likely to go off again. Juliette Davidson spend her first year after leaving St. Aldate’s College working for three lawyers. It was the perfect first job in that “ OK ... they were very supportive people. I was gently introduced to the work, learnt my way around an office and improve my word processing skills. However, there was no scope for advancement. One day, I gave my notice, bought an air ticket and traveled for a year.” Juliette now works as a Personal Assistant to Brenda Cleverdon, the Chief Executive of business in the Community. “In two and a half years I have become more able and my job has really grown”, she says. “ Right from the beginning my boss was very keen to develop me. My job title is the same as it was when I started but the duties have changed. From mainly typing and telephone work, I have progressed to doing most of the correspondence and budgets. I also have to deal with a variety of queries, coming from chairmen of large companies to people wanting to know how to start their own business. Brenda involves me in all her work but also gives me specific projects to do and events to organize.” Question 4: Who is intended to benefit from the advice given in the article? A. students who have just finished their studies B. people who are unhappy with their current job C. those who are interested in establishing a career D. people who change jobs regularly Question 5: According to the writer, why is the choice of your second job important? A. It will affect your future job prospects. B. It will last longer than your first job. C. It will be difficult to change if you don’t like it. D. It should give you the opportunity to study. Question 6: “It” in the passage refers to _______. A. first job B. second job C. application D. career Question 7: If you have a desire to travel, when does the writer suggest that you do it? A. straight after you have left college B. when you are unable to find a permanent job C. after you have done some temporary work D. between the first and second job Question 8: What does the phrase “you have got it out of your system” in passage mean? A. You have planned your career sensibly. B. You are an experienced traveler. C. You have satisfied your wish to travel. D. You have learned to look after yourself. Question 9: How did Juliette Davidson benefit from the experience of her first job? A. It was good introduction to working in an office. B. She met a variety of interesting people. C. It enabled her to earn enough money to travel. D. She learnt how to use a word processor. Question 10: In what way is Juliette’s current job better her first job? A. She has a more impressive job title. B. She now know how to start her own business. C. She has been able to extend her skills. D. She is more involve in the community. Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 11: I would rather you wore something more formal to work. A. I’d prefer you wearing something more formal to work. B. I’d prefer you to wear something more formal to work. C. I’d prefer you should wear something more formal to work. D. I’d prefer you wear something more formal to work. Question 12: Had we left any later, we would have missed the train. A. We didn’t miss the train because it left later. B. We left too late to catch the train. C. Because the train was late, we missed it. D. We almost missed the train. Question 13: “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” said Henry’s boss. A. Henry’s boss criticized him for doing his job carelessly. B. Henry’s boss asked him not to do his job with care. C. Henry’s boss suggested doing the job more carefully. D. Henry’s boss warned him to do the job carefully. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 14: A. lives B. plays C. works D. buys Question 15: A. picked B. worked C. naked D. booked Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Question 16: He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. A. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. B. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. C. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain. Question 17: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday. B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday. C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months. D. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. cosmetics B. fertility C. experience D. economics Question 19: A. informality B. appropriate C. situation D. entertainment Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference between schooling and education implied by this remark is important. Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on the tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the people arguing about politics on the radio , from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one’s entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmarkers are experimenting with. There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling. Question 20: In the passage, the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” mostly implies that _____. A. schooling prevents people discovering things B. schooling takes place everywhere C. all of life is an education D. education is totally ruined by schooling Question 21: What does the writer mean by saying “education quite often produces surprises”? A. Educators often produce surprises. B. Informal learning often brings about unexpected results. C. Success of informal learning is predictable. D. It’s surprising that we know little about other religions. Question 22: Which of the following would the writer support? A. Without formal education, people won’t be able to read and write. B. Going to school is only part of how people become educated. C. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day. D. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible. Question 23: According to the passage, the doers of education are _____. A. only respected grandparents B. mostly famous scientists C. mainly politicians D. almost all people Question 24: Which of the following is TRUE according to passage? A. Education and schooling are quite different experience. B. The best schools teach a variety of subjects. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is. Question 25: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _____. A. workings of governments B. newest filmmarkers C. political problems D. high school students Question 26: The word “all-inclusive” in the passage mostly means _____. A. including everything or everyone B. going in many directions C. involving many school subjects D. allowing no exceptions Question 27: This passage is mainly aimed at _____. A. telling the difference between the meaning of two related words “schooling” and “education” B. telling a story about execellent teachers C. listing and discussing several educational problems Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. giving examples of different schools Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 28: When I mentioned the party, he was all ears. A. using both ears B. listening neglectfully C. listening attentively D. partially deaf Question 29: John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly earnings. A. spending on B. putting out C. using up D. saving up Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. HOW TO AVOID MISCOMMUNICATION IN THE WORKPLACE As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving communication in your office. By clarifying everyone's expectations and roles, you'll help to (30) _______greater trust and increase productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for doing so. Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (31)_______ close attention to what another person is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back. Concentrate (32)_______ the conversation at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cell phone calls, others walking into your office, etc.). Take note of how your own experience and values may color your perception. Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every conversation comes with a host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. - that may (33)_______ contradict what we're saying. Before addressing a staff member or (34)_______ a project conference, think carefully about your tone of voice, how you make eye contact, and what your body is "saying." Be consistent throughout. Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as problems with past projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what you expect. Ask, "Does anyone have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-front as opposed to misinterpretation later on. Question 30: A. set up B. establish C. create D. build Question 31: A. showing B. paying C. using D. spending Question 32: A. for B. to C. on D. in Question 33: A. intentional B. unintentional C. intentionally D. unintentionally Question 34: A. to lead B. being led C. leading D. lead Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 35: He was offered the job thanks to his ________ performance during his job interview. A. impressive B. impressively C. impression D. impress Question 36: Someone who is _______ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in particular. A. pessimist B. optimistic C. optimist D. pessimistic Question 37: The preparations _______ by the time the guests ________. A. have finished / arrived B. have been finished / arrived C. had been finished / arrived D. had finished / arrived Question 38: As an _____, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes. A. educational B. education C. educator D. educate Question 39: ________turned out to be true. A. Everything she had told us which B. Everything where she had told us C. Everything she had told us D. That everything she told us Question 40: You'd better get someone __________ your living room. A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating D. redecorate Question 41: Can you take _______ of the shop while Mr. Green is away? A. operation B. charge C. management D. running Question 42: They held a party to congratulate their son _____ his success to become an engineer. A. in B. on C. with D. for Question 43: They always kept on good __________ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake. A. terms B. relations C. will D. relationship Question 44: They had invited over one hundred guests, ________. A. not any of whom I knew B. I did not know any of whom C. I knew none of who D. none of whom I knew Question 45: Please _________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome. A. come away B. come to C. come in D. come round Question 46: Not only _________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil. A. seismology is used B. is seismology used C. using seismology D. to use seismology Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 47: “What a great hair cut, Lucy!” - “ ______________” A. It’s my pleasure. B. Oh, yes. That’s right. C. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this. D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment Question 48: “A motorbike knocked Ted down” - “ ______________” A. How terrific! B. Poor him! C. What is it now? D. What a motorbike! Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 49: A trial must be fair and impartial. A. apprehensive B. hostile C. biased D. unprejudiced Question 50: After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university. A. incredible B. boring C. mysterious D. comic THE END! PRACTICE TEST 68 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Successful students often do the followings while studying. First they have an overview before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it (which often needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate important points to one another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “ fix-up” mistakes in comprehension. Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective study skills. They tend to assume a passive role in learning and rely on others(e.g, teachers, parents) to monitor their studying. For example, low-achieving students often do not monitor their understanding of content, they may not be aware of the purpose of studying, and their show little evidence of looking back, or employing “fix-up” strategies to fix understanding problems. Students who struggle with learning new information seem to be unaware that they must extent beyond simply reading the content to understand and remember it. Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality off their studying. Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good student who employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students use a restricted range of skills. They can not explain why good study strategies are important for learning, and they tend to use the same, often ineffective, study approach for all learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure of difficulty. Question 1: What is the topic of the passage? A. Successful learners and their learning strategies. B. Successful and low-academic achieving students. C. Effective and ineffective ways of learning. D. Study skills for high school students. Question 2: The word “prior” is CLOSET meaning to________. A. forward B. earlier C. important D. good Question 3: The word “Conversely” is OPPOSITE meaning to________. A. Actually B. Alternatively C. Consequently D. Similarity Question 4: According to the passage, what can be learnt about passive students? A. They are slow in their studying. B. They depend on other people to organize their learning. C. They monitor their understanding. D. The know the purpose of studying. Question 5: Which of the followings is NOT an evidence of monitoring studying? A. Looking at their backs. B. Monitoring their understanding of content. C. Being aware of the purpose of studying. D. Fixing up mistakes in the understanding. Question 6: According to the passage, to learn new information, low-achieving students do NOT________. A. read it. B. just understand it. C. simply remember it. D. relate it to what they have known. Question 7: In compared with low-achieving students, successful students use________. A. inflexible study ways. B. various study skills. C. restricted strategies. D. aimless studying techniques. Question 8: The underlined pronoun “they”refers to________. A. study strategies. B. low-achieving students. C. study skills. D. good students. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 9: I didn’t want to disturb the meeting. I left without saying goodbye. A. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye. B. I disturbed the meeting because I said goodbye. C. I would rather disturb the meeting than leaving without saying goodbye. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. The meeting was disturbed as I left saying goodbye. Question 10: The director guided us through the museum. He gave us a specific explanation. A. While the director was guiding us through the museum, he gave us a specific explanation. B. The director guided us through the museum and was giving us a specific explanation. C. Guiding us through the museum, a specific explanation was given to us by the director. D. The director guided us through the museum while a specific explanation was given to us. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 11: He seems to ignore whatever we say to him, which is rather annoying. A. to take no notice of B. to pay attention to C. to make a fuss about D. to make sure of Question 12: The competition was aimed to stimulate the learning spirit among students. A. improve B. announce C. represent D. discourage Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 13: (A) Not knowing the language and (B) had no friends in the area, she found (C) it difficult to (D) get by. Question 14: On (A) asked about the strike, (B) the Minister (C) declined (D) to comment. Question 15: Richart (A) said the play (B) was very (C) entertaining and he recommended (D) to see it. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. Volunteering is generally considered an (16) ______ activity and is intended to promote goodness or improve human quality of life. In return, it produces a feeling of self-worth and respect, rather than money. To volunteer simply means to be motivated and give your time or energy to work forwards an undertaking or cause you are interested in. Volunteering (17)______ individuals the chance to explore avenues that would not usually be open to them. This experience enables an exchange of culture and social contact between volunteers and those who benefit. When children volunteer, they often find themselves in a position where responsibility is required. They gain (18)______ when they know they’ve made a real contribution to a project. Research shows those who volunteer just one hour a week are 50 percent less likely to abuse drugs or alcohol, smoke cigarettes or engage in destructive behaviour. (19)______ my humble opinion, voluntary work needs to be integrated into the school curriculum.We need to motivate young people and make sure we create a culture or social activism where we insist that people help their community to empower others, (20)______ themselves. Question 16: A. uncommon B. uncertain C. unpopular D. unselfish. Question 17: A. gives B. shows C. helps D. makes. Question 18: A. self-reliance B. self-esteem C. self-confidence D. self-discipline. Question 19: A. On B. By C. For D. In. Question 20: A. as much as B. as well as C. as long as D. as good as Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 21: Having spent all his money, Daniel couldn’t afford a new watch. A. As Daniel had bought a new watch, he spent all his money. B. Danile didn’t buy a new watch although he had a lot of money. C. Because he had spent all the money, Daniel couldn’t afford a new watch. D. Daniel couldn’t get a new watch because he didn’t have much money. Question 22: Loyalty and trust are two importance qualities good friends must have. A. Good friends must have the two importance qualities of loyalty and trust. B. Good friends must be loyal and trusty because of their qualities. C. Good friends are important because they must have qualities of loyalty and trust. D. The two good qualities of loyalty and trust make friends important. Question 23: “Why don’t we wear sunglasses” our granpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days. A. Our granpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days. B. Our granpa never reminded us of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days. C. Our granpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days. D. Our granpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we were out on bright sunny days. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 24: A. promote B. psychology C. campaign D. participant. Question 25: A. rhythm B. exhibition C. vehicle D. childhood. Question 26: A. celebrate B. co-operate C. passionate D. participate. Question 27: A. solution B. suspicion C. volunteer D. suggestion. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 28: Time-management skills are not difficult ______. A. developing B. develop C. to develop D. develop Question 29: Learning to live ______ sounds easy, but in reality, it isn’t. A. independently B. dependent C. independent D. independence Question 30: I saw you in the park yesterday. You ______ on the grass and reading a book. A. had sat B. were sitting C. sat D. are sitting Question 31: Celebrities get tired of ______ everywhere they go. A. recognizing B. having recognized C. having been recognized D. being recognized Question 32: ______ the letter, she cried a lot because of what he wrote to her. A. Having read B. To read C. Read D. Being read Question 33: When ______ in international trade, letters of credit are very convenient. A. using B. are used C. used D. they used Question 34: To maintain a long-life friendship, you should be ______ and care about your friend’s feeling. A. sympathetic B. sympathize C. sympathy D. sympathetically Question 35: If you want to get a good result in every work, you should have ______. A. unselfishness B. sympathy C. loyalty D. constancy Question 36: ____ money for handicapped and disadvantaged children is always a good cause. A. Borrowing B. Raising C. Earning D. Making Question 37: I’m sorry I haven’t got any money. I’ve ______ my wallet at home. A. let B. missed C. left D.forgot Question 38: The poor child was in floods of ______ because his bicycle had been stolen. A. tears B. sorrow C. sadness D. upset Question 39: ______ of the committee, I’d like to thank you for your generous donation. A. Instead B. On behalf C. According D. In spite Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 40: Special education is intended to both handicapped and gifted children to reach their learning potentials. A. untalented B. disabled C. disadvantaged D. unskilled Question 41: New books are displayed in a prominent position on tables at the front of the store. A. noticeable B. memorable C. incredible D. enjoyable Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. People commonly complain that they never have enough time to accomplish tasks. The hours and minutes seem to slip away before many planned chores get done. According to time management experts, the main reason for this is that most people fail to set priorities about what to do first. They get tied down by trivial, time consuming matters and never complete the important ones. One simple solution often used by those at the top is to keep lists of tasks to be accomplished daily. These lists order jobs from most essential to least essential and are checked regularly through the day to assess progress. Not only is this an effective way to manage time, but also it serves to give individuals a much deserved sense of satisfaction over their achievements. People who do not keep lists often face the end of the word day with uncertainly over the significance of their accomplishments, which over time can contribute to serious problem in mental and physical health. Question 42: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. Accomplishing trivial matters B. Common complaints about work C. Learning to manage time D. Achieving job satisfaction Question 43: According to the passage, what does “slip away” mean? A. pick up B. break down C. fall behind D. pass quickly Question 44: According to the passage, why do many people never seem to have enough time to accomplish things? A. They fail to deal with trivial matters. B. They get tied down by one difficult problem. C. They do not prioritize tasks. D. They do not seek the advice of time management experts. Question 45: In paragraph 2, the word “those” refers to ______. A. priorities B. trivial matters C. daily lists D. people Question 46: The passage states that one solution to time management problem is to _____. A. accomplish time – consuming matters first. B. consult a time management. C. spend only a short time on each task. D. keep daily lists of priorities and check them regularly. Question 47: In the paragraph 2, the word “accomplishments” can be best replaced by ____. A. decisions B. priorities C. assessments D. achievements Question 48: In the paragraph following the passage most probably discusses ______. A. another solution to time management problems. B. mental and physical health problems. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. different types of lists. D. ways to achieve a sense of fulfillment. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 49: – “Happy anniversary” - “___________”A. You’re welcome B. Thanks C. Many happy returns D. My pleasure Question 50: – “Why don’t we send them some textbooks, newspapers and picture books?” - “___________” A. No, they’re available B. Great idea! What meaningful gifts! C. It’s my pleasure. D. We’re sorry to hear this. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 69 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 1: The waiter said, “Would you mind moving to another table?” A. The waiter asked me to move to another table. B. The waiter advised me to move to another table. C. The waiter insisted me to move to another table.D. The waiter told me not to move to another table. Question 2: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement. A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement. B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement. C. The two sides would never like to reach an agreement. D. If the two sides had had more time, they would have reached an agreement. Question 3: The movie bears little resemblance to the original novel. A. The movie and the original novel resemble in many ways. B. The movie is very similar to the original novel. C. The movie and the original novel differ in some ways. D. The movie is completely different from the original novel. Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 4: You’ll be able to hold the audience’s attention if your speech is live enough . A. to hold B. the audience’s C. if D. live enough Question 5: The audience was enjoying every minute of the performance . A. The B. was C. every D. performance Question 6: The photograph of the race’s final moments have been awarded the first place. A. The photograph B. final C. have been awarded D. first place Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Mr. Faugel was convinced that students’ nervousness had affected their scores; to reduce the anxiety of these students who had already been tested, he gave 22 of them a beta blocker before readministration of the test. Their scores improved significantly. The other 8 students (who did not receive the beta blockers) improved only slightly. Second-time test-takers nationwide had average improvements which were similar to those in Faugel's non-beta blocker group. Beta blockers are prescription drugs which have been around for 25 years. These medications, which interfere with the effects of adrenalin, have been used for heart conditions and for minor stress such as stage fright. Now they are used for test anxiety. These drugs seem to help test-takers who have low scores because of test fright, but not those who do not know the material. Since there can be side effects from these beta blockers, physicians are not ready to prescribe them routinely for all test-takers. Question 7: The word “reduce” in paragraph 1 most nearly means ________. A. build up B. lessen C. increase D. maximize Question 8: The word “interfere” in paragraph 2 most nearly means ________. A. prescribe B. aid C. help D. hinder Question 9: Why are beta clockers not prescribed regularly? A. Students are expected to do poorly. B. They cause test anxiety. C. The drugs are only 25 years old. D. There are side effects. Question 10: According to the passage, ____________ A. all people can take beta blockers. B. beta blockers are widely prescribed. C. beta blockers work only to improve test scores if the test-taker truly knows the material. D. beta blockers work only on test anxiety. Question 11: The expression “readministration” in this passage refers to _________. A. giving the test again to both groups after beta blockers have been administered to one group. B. giving the test again to people without administering beta blockers. C. giving the beta blockers without retesting. D. giving the test to both groups of test-takers and then giving them beta blockers. Question 12: What possible use for beta blockers was NOT discussed in this passage? A. Pain relief B. Anxiety test C. Heart conditions D. Minor stress Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 13: Beta blockers work on some physical and emotional symptoms because they ________. A. interfere with the side effects of adrenalin B. primarily change human thought processes C. produce side effects worse than the symptoms D. fool a person into a healthier stance Question 14: Faugel’s research showed that beta blockers given to his sample _______ A. increased scores the same as the national average. B. decreased scores. C. increased scores less than the national average. D. increased scores much more than the national average. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Today I’d like to begin a discussion on the problem of the heating up the earth. First, we’ll touch on the relationship between fluorocarbons and the ozone layer. You probably remember that the ozone layer is the protective shield around the earth. It is important to all life, because it filters out harmful ultraviolet light from the sun. Ozone itself, a form of oxygen, is regularly made by the action of the sun in the upper atmosphere. It is also regularly destroyed by natural chemical processes. The problem now is that too much of the ozone layer is being destroyed. Scientists suspect that certain chemicals, such as fluorocarbons, are contributing to the depletion of the ozone layer. And how do we use fluorocarbons? The most common uses are in spray cans and cooling systems. The chemical pollution from these fluorocarbons can account for some of the ozone losses that have been reported. There are, however, new studies linking the sun itself to the depletion of the ozone layer. We’ll go into that new study more next time. Question 15: Who is the most likely speaker? A. A mechanic B. A chemist C. A professor D. A doctor Question 16: What does the word “filters out” in paragraph 1 probably mean? A. prevents B. separates C. keeps D. stops Question 17: What is the most important purpose of the ozone layer? A. Shielding the sun B. Protecting the earth C. Destroying chemicals D. Providing fluorocarbons Question 18: What does the word “depletion” in paragraph 2 probably mean? A. deletion B. deployment C. departure D. destruction Question 19: What is the ozone layer made of? A. Oxygen B. Shields C. Ultraviolet light D. Fluorocarbons Question 20: The speaker’s main topic is _________. A. air-conditioning systems B. fluorocarbons and the ozone layer C. ultraviolet light D. the use of spray cans Question 21: What will the speaker probably discuss next? A. The make-up of the ozone layer. B. The sun as a cause of ozone layer depletion. C. How to make air conditioners with fluorocarbons. D. Harmful effects of ultraviolet light. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 22: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday. A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend. B. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday. C. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend. D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend. Question 23: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat. A. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise. B. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, Joe’s still very fat. C. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s very fat. D. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s very fat. Mark the letter A, B, C or D n your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Henry is talking to his mother. - Henry: “I’ve passed my driving test.” - His mother: “________” A. All right. B. That’s too bad. C. That’s a good idea. D. Congratulations! Question 25: Tom and Linda are talking about jobs they would like to choose. - Tom: “I think working as a doctor is a challenging job.” - Linda: “________.” A. That’s exactly what I think B. It’s a good idea C. I’m sorry, but I agree with you D. Not at all Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress. Question 26: A. preparation B. combination C. excellently D. energetic Question 27: A. medical B. rapidly C. possible D. interrupt Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 28: The doctor _______ the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up. A. looked into B. researched C. examined D. investigated Question 29: I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you ________ the whole truth yesterday. A. have told B. told C. could have told D. had told Question 30: A fire in the ________ building could be a problem for firefighters. A. ninety-storeys-tall B. ninety-storey-tall C. ninety-tall-storey D. ninety-storeyed Question 31: He ________ the plants. If he had, they wouldn’t have died. A. needn’t have watered B. can’t have watered C. shouldn’t water D. couldn’t water Question 32: I would appreciate _________ it a secret. A. that you will keep B. your keeping C. that you keep D. you to keep Question 33: To apply to ______ UK independent school, you’ll need to have ______ good standard of education from your own country.A. the / the B. an / a C. a / a D. the / a Question 34: The company asked that employees ________ personal phone calls during business hours. A. not to accept B. didn’t accept C. not accept D. wouldn’t accept Question 35: Please cut my hair ________ the style in this magazine. A. the same long as B. the same length like C. the same length as D. the same long like Question 36: __________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather. A. Be left uncovered B. Left uncovered C. Leaving uncovered D. Being left uncovered Question 37: The house stands high at the top of the hill, so it can be _______ from very far. A. picked up B. dealt with C. aimed at D. visible Question 38: She won the award for ________ her whole life to looking after the poor. A. paying B. using C. spending D. devoting Question 39: The job offer was so good that Janet shouldn’t have turned it ________. A. off B. out C. away D. down Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underline is pronounced differently from the rest. Question 40: A. legend B. category C. manage D. digest Question 41: A. impartial B. plentiful C. initiative D. tertiary Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Why is it that many teenagers have the energy to play computer games until late at night but can't find the energy to get out of bed (42) ______ for school? According to a new report, today's generation of children are in danger of getting so (43) ______ sleep that they are putting their mental and physical health at (44) ______. Adults can easily survive on seven to eight hours' sleep a night, (45) ______ teenagers require nine or ten hours. According to medical experts, one in five youngsters (46) _______ anything between two and five hours' sleep a night less than their parents did at their age. Question 42: A. about time B. at time C. in time D. behind time Question 43: A. few B. much C. little D. less Question 44: A. risk B. threat C. jeopardy D. danger Question 45: A. whereas B. or C. so D. because Question 46: A. brings B. makes C. puts D. gets Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question. Question 47: By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted their emergency stores. A. lost B. greatly dropped C. destroyed D. used almost all Question 48: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools. A. divided B. paid C. required D. depended Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word of phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following question. Question 49: The dim lights made it hard to see, so Ben squinted to make out the stranger’s face in the distance. A. faint B. muted C. strong D. weak Question 50: There was an abrupt change in the weather. A. gradual B. strong C. extreme D. sudden
Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 70 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. country B. counter C. amount D. around Question 2: A. loves B. spends C. cooks D. songs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. attention B. difficult C. romantic D. society Question 4: A. invite B. happen C. finish D. follow Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: (A) Japanese initially (B) used jeweled objects to (C) decorate swords and ceremonial (D) items. A. Japanese B. used C. decorate D. items Question 6: Last week Mark (A) told me that he (B) got very bored with his present job and (C) is looking for a (D) new one. A. told B. got C. is looking D. new one. Question 7: There (A) are (B) many single mothers and single fathers (C) which are raising children by (D) themselves. A. are B. many C. which D. themselves Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer in each of the following questions. Question 8: His achievements were partly due to the ______ of his wife. A. assistance B. assisted C. assistant D. assist Question 9: Were you aware ______ the regulations against smoking in this area? A. with B. about C. of D. in Question 10: ______ had the curtain been raised than the light went out. A. Hardly B. Scarcely C. Only when D. No sooner Question 11: She got the job ______ the fact that she had very little experience. A. although B. because C. despite D. because of Question 12: I don't feel like ______ home; what about ______ out for a walk? A. staying- going B. to stay- to go C. to stay- going D. staying - to go Question 13: We hope to have the law ______ by December. A. pass B. to pass C. passed D. passing Question 14: Most young people nowadays believe in ______ marriage - first comes love, then comes marriage. A. unique B. arranged C. romantic D. contractual Question 15: The more you talk about the situation ______. A. the worse it seems B. it seems the worse C. the worse does it seem D. it seems worse Question 16: This building ______ finished by the end of 2020. A. will be B. will have been C. is going to be D. is Question 17: If you do not learn seriously, ______ to understand the subject well. A. never you will be able. B. will you never be able.C. you will never be able. D. will never you be able. Question 18: Vietnam's Got Talent is the gameshow that has taken audiences ______. A. by storm B. by wind C. by night D. by heart Question 19: I'll introduce to you the man ______ support is necessary for your project. A. whom B. whose C. Who D. that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: -"What a great haircut, Lucy!" -" ______ " A. Thank you. That's a nice compliment. B. It's my pleasure. C. Thanks. It's very kind of you to do this. D. Oh, yes. That's right. Question 21: -James : "Where will you go on vacation?" -Thomson " ______ " A. The beach is nice, isn't it? B. Probably I won't think of. C. Probably to the beach. D. I have a four-day vacation. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. overseas B. alone C. widely D. secretly Question 23: It is required for all students to take the entrance examination in order to attend the university. A. useful B. compulsory C. optional D. important Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: All children can attend without paying fees at state schools. A. primary schools B. secondary schools C. high schools D. independent schools Question 25: We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services must be available all hours. A. a physical society B. an inactive society C. a working society D. an active society Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: " If I were you, I wouldn't make a fuss, " he said. A. He accused me of making a fuss. B. He advised me not to make a fuss. C. He refused to make a fuss. D. He denied making a fuss. Question 27: The burglar was caught red- handed by the police when he broke into the flat. A. The police caught the burglar to break into the flat . B. The police caught the burglar when breaking into the flat, C. When the burglar had broken into the flat, the police caught him at once. D. The police caught the burglar breaking into the flat. Question 28: It is reported that the prisoners escaped by means of a helicopter. A. The prisoners is reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter. B. The prisoners are reported to have escaped by means of a helicopter. C. The prisoners are reported to escape by means of a helicopter. D. The prisoners are reported to have been escaped by means of a helicopter. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: You don't try to work hard. You will fail in the exam. A. Unless you try to work hard, you won't fail in the exam. B. Unless do you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. C. Unless you try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. D. Unless you don't try to work hard, you will fail in the exam. Question 30: My brother can't find a job. He is very well-qualified. A. My brother can't find a job in spite of he is very well-qualified. B. My brother can't find a job even though he is very well-qualified. C. My brother can't find a job despite he is very well-qualified D. My brother can't find a job, but he is very well-qualified. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. BOOKS Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can (31) ______ in books. The invention of the book is one of humankind's (32) ______ achievements, the importance of which can not be evaluated . Books are very useful, providing us with both entertainment and information. The production of books began in Ancient Egypt, though not in the form that is accessible to us today.The books read by Romans, (33) ______, have some similarities to the ones we read now. Until the middle of the 15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They (34) ______ often beautifully illustrated and always rare and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, large publication and distribution of book making (35) ______ more widespread and reliable. Question 31: A. found B. find C. founded D. be found Question 32: A. greatest B. greatly C. great D. greater Question 33: A. Because B. So C. So that D. However Question 34: A. are B. have C. were D. have been Question 35: A. known B. know C. knowledge D. knowledgeable Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Today, roller skating is easy and fun. But a long time ago, it wasn't easy at all. Before 1750, the idea of skating didn't exist. That changed because of a man named Joseph Merlin. Merlin's work was making musical instruments. In his spare time he liked to play the violin. Joseph Merlin was a man of ideas and dreams. People called him a dreamer. One day Merlin received an invitation to attend a fancy dress ball. He was very pleased and a little excited. As the day of the party came near, Merlin began to think how to make a grand entrance at the party. He had an idea. He thought he would get a lot of attention if he could skate into the room. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Merlin tried different ways to make himself roll. Finally, he decided to put two wheels under each shoe. These were the first roller skates. Merlin was very proud of his invention as he dreamed of arriving at the party on wheels while playing the violin. On the night of the party Merlin rolled into the room playing his violin. Everyone was astonished to see him. There was just one problem. Merlin had no way to stop his roller skates. He rolled on and on. Suddenly, he ran into a huge mirror that was hanging on the wall. Down fell the mirror, breaking to pieces. Nobody forgot Merlin's grand entrance for a long time! Question 36: The passage is mainly about _______________ . A. how people enjoyed themselves in the 18th century B. a strange man C. how roller skating began D. an unusual party Question 37: The word "astonished" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by________ . A. tired B. surprised C. embarrassed D. polite Question 38: Merlin put wheels under his shoes in order to ____________. A. impress the party guests B. arrive at the party sooner C. show his skill in walking on wheels D. test his invention Question 39: The word "ball" in paragraph 2 probably means _________. A. game B. party C. round object D. match Question 40: People thought Merlin was a dreamer because he ___________. A. was a gifted musician B. invented the roller skates C. often gave others surprises D. was full of imagination Question 41: What is the main point the writer is trying to make in the last paragraph? A. Merlin got himself into trouble. B. Merlin succeeded beyond expectation. C. The roller skates needed further improvement. D. The party guests took Merlin for a fool. Question 42: The word "These" in paragraph 3 refers to . A. wheels B. roller skates C. different ways D. shoes Read the following passage and mark the letter A , B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. When we moved to our new house near the sea, I was eight years old. Even before that I had spent every summer messing about on boats. My dad had taught me to sail before I learnt to ride a bike so I knew how I wanted to spend my time at the new house- I was going to get my own boat and sail it everyday. The house was only a few meters from the water's edge, and in rough weather the waves would come crashing into the front garden. I used to sit with my nose pressed to the glass, fascinated by the power of the ocean. I grew up watching the skies to see if it was going to rain; would I be going sailing that afternoon or not? Of course I sometimes wished I could live in the town like my friends. I used to get angry with my parents, who had taken early retirement because they seemed incapable of getting anywhere on time. Dad drove me the eight miles to school everyday, but I was often late because he had been walking on the cliffs earlier in the morning and had lost track of time. When I was taking my university entrance exams, I used to stay over at a friend's in town, just in case. All in all, I was lucky to grow up by the sea and I still love to sail. Question 43: At the age of eight, the writer's house was _______. A. in the town B. under the mountain C. on boat D. by the sea Question 44: The word "rough"in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________. A. forceful B. beautiful C. careful D. easy Question 45: The writer's father retired early because ___________. A. he walked on the cliffs every morning. B. he was unable to get anywhere on time. C. he had to drive his kid to school everyday D. he lost rack of time. Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following are true EXCEPT___________. A. the writer didn't know how to sail. B. house to school was 8 miles. C. the waves came crashing into the writer's front garden in bad weather. D.the write moved to a new house when he was 8. Question 47: Growing up by the sea, the writer felt ___________. A. excited B. angry C. unlucky D. lucky Question 48: The writer learnt to sail ___________. A. When he/ she was eight. B. when his family moved to a new house C. before going to school. D. before learning to ride a bike Question 49: When taking the university entrance exams, ___________. A. the weather was terrible B. the writer's family moved to a new house by the sea C. the writer had to live in a friend's house D. the writer's father drove him/ her to university. Question 50: The phrase "All in all "in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________. A. In all B. In the whole C. On general D. On the whole Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 71 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The custom of paying a bride price before marriage is still a well-established part of many African cultures. In paying a bride price, the family of the groom must provide payment to the family of the bride before the marriage is allowed. The bride price can vary greatly from culture to culture in Africa. In the Zulu and Swazi tribes of southern Africa, the bride price often takes the form of cattle. In Western African, kola nuts, shells, and other goods are often used for the payment of the bride price. The actual payment of money sometimes takes place, but the payment of goods is more frequent. The amount of paid in a bride price can also vary. In modern times, the bride price is occasionally quite small and its value is mainly symbolic. However, the bride price can still be quite high, especially among prominent or highly traditional families. There are a number of justifications used to explain the payment of bride price. The first is that the bride price represents an acknowledgement of the expense the bride's family has gone in order to raise her and bring her up as a suitable bride for the groom. It also represents payment for the loss of a family member, since the bride will officially become a member of her husband's family and will leave her own. On a deeper level the bride price represents payment for the fact that the bride will bring children into the family of the groom, thereby increasing the wealth of the family. This concept is reinforced by the fact that the bride price must often be returned if the bride fails to bear children. The payment of the bride price has quite a number of effects on African society. First, the payment of bride price acts to increase the stability of African family structures. Sons are dependent on their fathers and older relatives to help them pay the bride price of their wives, and this generally leads to greater levels of obedience and respect. The negotiations between the two families concerning the bride price allow the parents and other family members to meet and get to know one another before the marriage. Finally, since the bride price must often be repaid in case of divorce, the bride's family often works to make sure that any marital problems are solved quickly. Bride prices also work as a system of wealth distribution in African cultures. Wealthier families can afford to support the marriage of their son, and thus their wealth is transferred to other families. Question 1: According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the bride price EXCEPT ______. A. its amount and form can vary B. its practice is occasionally only symbolic C. it is a relatively new practice in Africa D. it is generally higher among traditional families Question 2: Why does the author mention “the payment of money” in paragraph 1? A. To stress that the use of goods in the payment of bride price is most common. B. To demonstrate the differences in how rich and poor families pay the bride price. C. To illustrate how the practice of bride price has changed over time. D. To demonstrate how expensive a bride price can be sometimes. Question 3: The word "prominent" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. educated B. important C. religious D. conservative Question 4: The phrase "The first" in paragraph 2 refers to the first _________. A. Marriage B. Bride price C. Payment D. Justification Question 5: It can be inferred from the paragraph 2 that African families ________. A. never see their daughters after marriage B. pay the bride price on the day of the wedding ' C. place more value on men than women D. place great importance on childbirth Question 6: The author uses the word "marital" to indicate that the problems are related to ________. A. money B. law C. marriage D. pregnancy Question 7: Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Sometimes the bride’s family has to return the bride price to the groom’s for equal distribution of wealth. B. The initial negotiations over the birde price provide opportunities for 2 families to meet each other. C. Animals are not an acceptable form of payment when it comes to paying the bride prices. D. Without having to pay the bride price, African men would not respect their family members. Question 8: Why are women often married to older men? A. Young men lack the financial to marry. B. The legal age for marriage is lower for women than for men. C. Families are eager to gain the bride price from their daughter’s marriage. D. Women live longer than men on average. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Question 9: The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest professional golfer that has won this award so far. A. The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show. B. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far. D. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far. Question 10: We arrived at the conference. Then we realized that our reports were still at home. A. No sooner had we realized that our reports were at home than we arrived at the conference. B. Only after we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home. C. Not until we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home. D. Hardly had we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home. Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 11: Mr. Brown said to me "Make good use of your time. You wont get such an opportunity again." A. Mr. Brown let me make use of my time, knowing that I wouldn't get such an opportunity again. B. Mr. Brown ordered me to make good use of my time, said that I wouldn't get such an opportunity again. C. Mr. Brown offered me such an opportunity so that I could make good use of my time. D. Mr Brown advised me to make good use of my time as I wouldn't get such an opportunity again. Question 12: Perhaps, the violence was provoked by the fans of the visiting team. A. It can have been the visiting team's fans that set off the violence. B. The fans of the visiting team must have been the people who began the violence. C. There might have been some violence caused by the visiting team's fans. D. The fans of the visiting team should have brought about the violence. Question 13: People say that Mr Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year. A. Mr Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. B. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr Goldman. C. Mr Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. D. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr Goldman. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 14: Most people indulge _________ harmless fantasies to relieve the boredom of their lives. A. of B. in C. to D. for Question 15: _______ they've already made their decision, there's nothing much we can do. A. Seeing that B. On grounds that C. Assuming that D. For reason that Question 16: _________, the town does not get much of an ocean breeze. A. Locating near the coast B. Despite location near the coast C. Though located near the coast D. In spite having location near the coast Question 17: We missed the ferry yesterday morning. It _________ by the time we arrived at the pier. A. has already gone B. was already going C. had already gone D. already went Question 18: If the prisoners attempt to escape from prison, _________ immediately. A. they will have caught B. they will catch C. they will be caught D. they would be caught Question 19: With its thousands of rocks and caves _________ out of the water, Ha Long Bay has won international recognition. A. being emerged B. emerged C. emerging D. emerge Question 20: Is that the man _________. A. whom you lent the money B. whom did you lend the money C. you lent the money D. you lent the money to Question 21: His reply was so _________ that I didn't know how to interpret it. A. explicable B. assertive C. explanatory D. ambiguous Question 22: Shelly disagreed with the board's decision. She _________ and went to work for another company. A. pursued B. resigned C. abandoned D. retained Question 23: As an ASEAN member, Vietnam has actively participated in the groups programs and has also created new _________ and cooperation mechanics. A. initiatives B. initiators C. initiations D. initiates Question 24: Archaeologists think that massive floods could have _________ the dinosaurs. A. wiped out B. laid off C. put aside D. taken down Question 25: I'm going on business for a week, so I'll be leaving everything _________. A. on your guards B. up to your eyes C. in your capable hands D. under the care of you Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. SPORTS IN SOCIETY The position of sport in today's society has changed out of all recognition. People no longer seem to think of sports as ‘just a game’ - to be watched or played for the (26) _________ of enjoyment. Instead, it has become big business worldwide. It has become accepted practice for leading companies to provide sponsorship. TV companies Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose pay large sums of money to screen important matches or competitions. The result has been huge rewards for athletes, some of (27) _________ are now very wealthy, particularly top footballers, golfers and tennis players. (28) ________ , it is not unusual for some athletes to receive large fees on top of their salary, for advertising products or making personal appearances. A trend towards shorter working hours means that people generally tend to have more free time, both to watch and to take in sporting activity; sport has become a significant part of the recreation industry that we now rely (29) _________ to fill our leisure hours. Professional sport is a vital part of that industry, providing for millions of (30) _________ people all over the world. Question 26: A. advantage B. good C. benefit D. sake Question 27: A. whose B. whom C. who D. that Question 28: A. In addition B. However C. In contrast D. Therefore Question 29: A. for B. with C. on D. in Question 30: A. ordinary B. mighty C. extremist D. abnormal Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 31: A. commerce B. reserve C. burden D. comment Question 32: A. accomplish B. embarrass C. interpret D. volunteer Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 33: A. approached B. enforced C. composed D. embraced Question 34: A. sculpture B. result C. justice D. figure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 35: The police have concluded tentatively that the explosion was caused by a bom A. differently B. hesitantly C. certainly D. temporarily Question 36: The palace was badly damaged by fire, but was eventually restored to its original spiendor. A. refurbished B. devastated C. strengthened D. renovated Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37: He was attentive as Betsy and I talked about our charity concert to help the victims of the recent floods. A. perceptive B. indifferent C. interested D. negligent Question 38: My father hit the roof when he found that I'd damaged the car. A. was over the moon B. burst with anger C. went with the flow D. kept his shirt on Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 39: Fruit and vegetables should be carefully washed whether eaten fresh or cook. A. carefully B. whether C. fresh D. cook Question 40: The Netherlands, with much of its land lying lower than sea level, have a system of dikes and canals for controlling water. A. much B. lying C. have D. controlling Question 41: The symptoms of diabetes in the early stages are too slight that people do not notice them. A. The B. too C. do not D. them Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 42: - Mary: “_______.” - Jane: "All right, suit yourself." A. What is your favorite starter? B. I haven't been to such a nice place with you for a while. C. Can you help me choose the main course? D. I don't want t eat anything. I'm on diet. Question 43: - Peter: "My parents gave me no choice but to study business." - Danny: “_______.” A. Well, so be it B. Of course not C. Oh, by all means D. No, I can’t get it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the most important social developments that helped to make possible a shift in thinking about the role of public education was the effect of the baby boom of the 1950's and 1960's on the schools. In the 1920's, but especially in the Depression conditions of the 1930's, the United States experienced a declining birth rate – every thousand women aged fifteen to forty-four gave birth to about 118 live children in 1920, 89.2 in 1930, 75.8 in 1936, and 80 in 1940. With the growing prosperity brought on by the Second World War and the economic boom that followed it, young people married and established households earlier and began to raise larger families than had their Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose predecessors during the Depression. Birth rates rose to 102 per thousand in 1946, 106.2 in 1950, and 118 in 1955. Although economics was probably the most important determinant, it is not the only explanation for the baby boom. The increased value placed on the idea of the family also helps to explain this rise in birth rates. The baby boomers began streaming into the first grade by the mid-1940's and became a flood by 1950. The public school system suddenly found itself overtaxed. While the number of schoolchildren rose because of wartime and postwar conditions, these same conditions made the schools even less prepared to cope with the flood. The wartime economy meant that few new schools were built between 1940 and 1945. Moreover, during the war and in the boom times that followed large numbers of teachers left their profession for better-paying jobs elsewhere in the economy. Therefore, in the 1950's and 1960's, the baby boom hit an antiquated and inadequate school system. Consequently, the "custodial rhetoric" of the 1930's and early 1940's no longer made sense; that is, keeping youths aged sixteen and older out of the labor market by keeping them in school could no longer be a high priority for an institution unable to find space and staff to teach younger children aged five to sixteen. With the baby boom, the focus of educators and of laymen interested in education inevitably turned toward the lower grades and back to basic academic skills and discipline. The system no longer had much interest in offering nontraditional, new, and extra services to older youths. Question 44: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Birth rates in the United States in the 1930's and 1940 B. The impact of the baby boom on public education C. The role of the family in the 1950's and 1960's D. The teaching profession during the baby boom Question 45: The word "it" in paragraph refers to _________. A. the economic boom B. the Second World War C. the 1930s D. the United States Question 46: The word "overtaxed" in line 14 is closest in meaning to _________. A. changed too much B. plentifully supplied C. heavily burdened D. well prepared Question 47: The public school of the 1950's and 1960's faced all of the following problems EXCEPT _________. A. an inadequate number of school buildings B. old-fashioned facilities C. a shortage of teachers D. a declining number of students Question 48: According to the passage, why did teachers leave the teaching profession after the outbreak of the war? A. Teaching positions were scarce. B. They were dissatisfied with the curriculum. C. Other jobs provided higher salaries. D. They needed to be retrained. Question 49: The word "inevitably" in parapraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. A. unavoidably B. impartially C. irrationally D. unwillingly Question 50: Which of the following best characterizes the organization of the passage? A. The second paragraph provides a fictional account to illustrate a problem presented in the first paragraph. B. The second paragraph argues against a point made in the first paragraph. C. The second paragraph introduces a problem not mentioned in the first paragraph. D. The second paragraph presents the effect of circ*mstances described in the first paragraph. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 72 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. reduce B. impress C. technique D. finish Question 2: A. enthusiast B. preferential C. participant D. particular Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. coach B. goat C. toad D. broad Question 4: A. laughs B. mouths C. slopes D. presidents Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: If you knew he was ill, why _________ you _________ to see him? A. didn’t / come B. wouldn’t / come C. should / come D. would / come Question 6: They _________ tired now because they _________ in the garden since 8 o’clock. A. are / worked B. were / were working C. are / have been working D. were / worked Question 7: I enjoy _________ busy. I don’t like it when there is nothing _________. A. being / to do B. to be / doing C. to be / to do D. being / doing Question 8: Women no longer have to do hard work nowadays as they used to, _________? A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they Question 9: You _________ Tom yesterday. He’s been away on business for a week now. A. mustn’t have seen B. could not have seen C. may have not seen D. can’t have seen Question 10: He was the last man _________ the ship. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. who leave B. to leave C. leaving D. left Question 11: No one can predict the future exactly. Things may happen _________. A. expectation B. expected C. expectedly D. unexpectedly Question 12: I must tell you about my _________ when I first arrived in London. A. incidents B. happenings C. experiences D. events Question 13: The local were not very friendly towards us, in fact there was a distinctly _________ atmosphere. A. hostile B. offensive C. rude D. abrupt Question 14: We have bought some _________. A. German lovely old glasses B. German old lovely glasses C. lovely old German glasses D. old lovely German glasses Question 15: He sent his children to the park so that he could have some _________. A. fresh and quiet B. quiet and peace C. peace and quiet D. fresh and peace Question 16: I _________ to see Chris on my way home. A. dropped back B. dropped in C. dropped out D. dropped off Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 17: At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on his mind. A. Never B. Always C. Hardly D. Sometimes Question 18: We went away on holiday last week, but in rained day in day out. A. every other day B. every single day C. every second day D. every two days Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions Question 19: The nominating committee always meet behind closed doors, lest its deliberations become known prematurely. A. privately B. safely C. publicly D. dangerously Question 20: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends went she went abroad to study. A. made room for B. put in charge of C. got in touch of D. lost control of Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 21: Denis has just bought a new suit that he likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - Tom: “You look very smart in that suit, Denis.” - Denis: “_______.” A. No, I don’t think so B. Oh, you don’t like it, do you? C. Thanks, I bought it at Mike’s D. Thanks, my mum has bought it Question 22: John is in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks the local passer-by the way to the bank. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. - John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?” - Passer-by: “_______.” A. Not way, sorry B. Just round the corner over there C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 23: Sometimes all it take is a few minutes to help you and your family members feel more in touch with each other.A. all it take B. to help C. feel D. in touch with Question 24: The examination will test your ability to understand spoken English, to read non technical language, and writing correctly.A. will test B. spoken C. writing D. correctly Question 25: We always have believed that honesty is the best policy in personal as well as professional matters. A. always have believed B. best policy C. personal D. professional Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. I had never been to Denmark before, so when I set out to catch the ferry in early May, I little suspected that by the end of the trip I'd have made such lasting friendships. Esjberg is a (26) ________ port for a cyclist's arrival, where tourist information can be obtained and money changed. A cycle track leads (27) ________ town and down to Ribe, where I spent my first night. The only appointment I had to keep was a meeting with a friend who was flying out in June. I wanted to use my time well, so I had planned a route which would include several small islands and various parts of the countryside. In my (28) ________, a person travelling alone sometimes meets with unexpected hospitality, and this trip was no (29) ________. On only my second day, I got into conversation with a cheerful man who turned out to be the local baker. He insisted that I should join his family for lunch, and, while we were eating, he contacted his daughter inOdense. Within minutes, he had (30) ________ for me to visit her and her family. Then I was sent on my way with a fresh loaf of bread to keep me going and the feeling that this would turn out to be a wonderful holiday. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 26: A. capable B. ready C. favorable D. convenient Question 27: A. in to B. up ward C. out of D. upon Question 28: A. information B. experience C. knowledge D. observation Question 29: A. exception B. difference C. change D. contract Question 30: A. fixed B. ordered C. settled D. arranged Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices. For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are approximately 8,7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular? Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities. It is also true that employees who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really get away from the office. Question 31: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? A. An overview of telecommuting B. The failure of telecommuting C. The advantages of telecommuting D. A definition of telecommuting Question 32: How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? A. More than predicted in Business Week B. More than 8 million C. Fewer than last year D. Fewer than estimated in USA Today Question 33: The phrase “of no consequence” means ________. A. of no use B. irrelevant C. of no good D. unimportant Question 34: The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting EXCEPT ________. A. the opportunities for advancement B. the different system of supervision C. the lack of interaction with a group D. the work place is in the home Question 35: The word “them” in the second paragraph refers to ________. A. telecommuters B. systems C. executives D. responsibilities Question 36: The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees ________. A. need regular interaction with their families. B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office. C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office. D. are ignorant of telecommuting. Question 37: The word “reluctant” in line 13 can best be replaced by ________. A. opposite B. willing C. hesitant D. typical Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. In my experience, freshmen today are different from those I knew when I started as a counselor and professor 25 years ago. College has always been demanding both academically and socially. But students now are less mature and often not ready for the responsibility of being in college. It is really too easy to point the finger at parents who protect their children from life’s obstacle. Parents, who handle every difficulty and every other responsibility for their children writing admission essays to picking college courses, certainly may contribute to their children’s lack of coping strategies. But we can look even more broadly to the social trends of today. How many people do you know who are on medication to prevent anxiety or depression? The number of students who arrive at college already medicated for unwanted emotions has increased dramatically in the past 10 years. We, as a society, don’t want to “feel” anything unpleasant and we certainly don’t want our children to “suffer”. The resulting problem is that by not experiencing negative emotions, one does not learn the necessary skills to tolerate and negotiate adversity. As a psychologist, I am well aware of the fact that some individuals suffer from depression and anxiety and can benefit from treatment, but I question the growing number of medicated adolescents today. Our world is more stressful in general because of the current economic and political realities, but I don’t believe that the college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. What I do think is that many students are often not prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose What does this mean for college faculty and staff? We are required to assist in the basic parenting of these students – the student who complains that the professor didn’t remind her of the due date for an assignment that was clearly listed on the syllabus and the student who cheats on an assignment in spite of careful instructions about plagiarism. As college professors, we have to explain what it means to be an independent college student before we can even begin to teach. As parents and teachers we should expect young people to meet challenges. To encourage them in this direction, we have to step back and let them fail and pick themselves up and move forward. This approach needs to begin at an early age so that college can actually be a passage to independent adulthood. Question 38: According to the writer, students today are different from those she knew in that they are ____________. A. too ready for college B. not as mature C. not so academic D. responsible for their work Question 39: The word “handle” in parapgraph 2 mostly means ____________. A. deal with B. gain benefits from C. lend a hand to D. point at Question 40: According to the writer, students’ difficulties to cope with college life are partly due to ____________. A. the absence of parents’ protection B. the lack of parental support C. the over-parenting from parents D. the lack of financial support Question 41: The phrase “on medication” in paragraph 3 is similar in meaning to ________. A. studying medicine at college B. doing medical research C. receiving medical treatment D. suffering anxiety from depression Question 42: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. College faculty and staff are required to help in the parenting of problematic students. B. The college experience itself is more intense today than that of the past 10 years. C. Our world is more stressful because of the current economic and political situation. D. Our society certainly doesn’t want our children to experience unpleasant things. Question 43: Students who are not well – prepared to be young “adults” with all the responsibilities of life will need ______. A. to be assigned more housework from adults B. to be given more social responsibilities C. to be encouraged to meet challenges D. daily coaching from their teachers Question 44: According to the writer, failure in life and less support from parents will ______. A. help students to learn to stand on their own feet B. allow students to learn the first lesson in their lives C. defeat students from the very beginning D. discourage students and let them down forever Question 45: What is probably the writer’s attitude in the passage? A. Praising B. Indifferent C. Humorous D. Critial Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: The car was very expensive and he couldn’t afford it. A. The car was very expensive so that he couldn’t buy it. B. The car was too expensive for him to buy. C. He was rich enough to buy the car. D. He was so poor but he bought the car. Question 47: “Please send me to a warm climate” Tom said. A. Tom pleaded with the boss to send him to a warm climate. B. Tom begged the boss to send him to a warm climate. C. Tom would rather went to a warm climate. D. Tom asked his boss to go to a warm climate. Question 48: He expected us to offer him the job. A. We were expected to be offered him the job. B. He expected to be offered the job. C. He is expected that we should offer him the job. D. He was offered the job without expectation. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentence in the following questions. Question 49: He held the rope with one hand. He stretched it out. A. The robe is held with one hand then he stretched it out. B. Stretching the robe out, he holds it with one hand. C. Holding the rope with one hand, he stretched it out. D. He stretched the rope with one hand and held it. Question 50: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice. A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice. B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice. C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice. D. The plan is as impractical as it is genius. THE END!
Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 73 Choose the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. exhaust B. exam C. exact D. excellent Question 2: A. command B. community C. complete D. common Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. document B. development C. improvement D. environment Question 4: A. comfortable B. dynasty C. literature D. engineering Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word of phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 5 to 9. As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In this world of diversity, (5) ______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher,etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (6) ______, the cost of education was not so high. Today’s world is entirely different from the things (7) ______ have just been described. The job market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (8) ______. Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well- organized career talks and student counseling workshop to guide and help teenagers (9) ______ what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students. Question 5: A. taking B. making C. giving D. having Question 6: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore Question 7: A. when B. that C. where D. what Question 8: A. competitively B. competition C. compete D. competitive Question 9: A. employ B. study C. decide D. apply Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Living things include both the visible world of animals and plants as well as the invisible world of bacteria and viruses. On a basic level, we can say that life is ordered. Organisms have an enormously complex organization. Life can also “work”. Living creatures can take in energy from the environment. This energy, in the form of food, is changed to maintain metabolic processes and for survival. Life grows and develops. This means more than just getting larger in size. Living organisms also have the ability to rebuild and repair themselves when injured. Life can reproduce. Life can only come from other living creatures. Life can respond. Think about the last time you accidentally stubbed your toe. Almost instantly, you moved back in pain. Finally, life can adapt and respond to the demands placed on it by the environment. There are three basic types of adaptations that can occur in higher organisms. Reversible changes occur as a response to changes in the environment. Let's say you live near sea level and you travel to a mountainous area. You may begin to experience difficulty breathing and an increase in heart rate as a result of the change in height. These signs of sickness go away when you go back down to sea level. Body- related changes happen as a result of prolonged changes in the environment. Using the previous example, if you were to stay in the mountainous area for a long time, you would notice that your heart rate would begin to slow down and you would begin to breath normally. These changes are also reversible. Genotypic changes (caused by genetic change) take place within the genetic make up of the organism and are not reversible. An example would be the development of resistance to bug-killing chemicals by insects and spiders. Question 10: In what way is life organized?. A. Hard B. Difficult C. Complicated D. Problematic Question 11: Which of the followings is NOT a feature of life? A. Getting a job. B. Giving birth. C. Getting larger and self-repairing. D. Reacting to the environment. Question 12: What is the energy for the living things called? A. Food. B. Metabolic process. C. Green energy. D. Environment Question 13: You see life respond most clearly when you______. A. unintentionally hurt yourself. B. move part of your body due to threat. C. look at your toe. D. feel hurt. Question 14: Which type of living creatures can adapt to the changes in the environment? A. More visible B. Lower C. Higher D. More human Question 15: What does the word “Reversible” in the passage mean? Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. Changeable B. Visible C. Fitful D. Irregular Question 16: Which type of adaptation is permanent? A. Body- related B. Reversible C. Genotypic D. Environmental Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges. Question 17: -Bill: “Let’s stop for a drink”. -Bruce: “______”. A. Long time no see. B. Nice to meet you. C. Sorry, we’ve got little time. D. Your’re welcome. Question 18: -Jack: “I’m going to take a five-day trip to Rome.” -Jill: “______”. A. No, of course not. B. Have a good time. C. The same to you. D. Yes, let’s. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each on the following questions. Question 19: While working as a travel agency, my elder brother specialized in arranging tours of the Mekong Delta for foreign tourists. A. a travel agency B. While C. specialized in D. tours of Question 20: A lot of athletic and non-athletic extracurricular activities are available in Vietnamese highschools, either public and private. A. available in B. non-athletic C. either public and private D. A lot of Question 21: In a restaurant, if we want to call the waiter, we can raise our hand and wave it slight to signal that we need assistance. A. slight to signal B. if we C. assistance D. wave it Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 22: For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lot of fluids. A. Doctors would rather give advice about cold than about fluids. B. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds. C. The doctors recommend that you have a cold soft drinks. D. You were told to come out of the cold and rest. Question 23: “Absence makes the heart grow fonder”. A. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them more. B. Our heart needs absence to grow. C. Being apart from someone you love makes you love them less. D. Absence makes us grow older. Question 24: My cousin shows a desire to put aside the status of the school child. A. The status of the school child makes my cousin happy. B. My cousin doesn’t want to be a school child anymore. C. My cousin is determined to put up with the other school children. D. My cousin decides to play down the status of the school child. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 25: I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t drop in. A. Not knowing that you were at home, but I still dropped in. B. I didn’t know you were at home although I didn’t drop in. C. Not knowing that you were at home, I didn’t drop in. D. If I knew that you were at home, I would drop in. Question 26: My sisters used to get on with each other. Now they hardly speak. A. My sisters were once close, but they rarely speak to each other now. B. My sisters do not speak to each other much, but they’re good friends. C. My sisters rarely speak because they have never liked each other. D. Because they have never got on, my sisters do not speak to each other. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For many American university students, the weeklong spring break holiday means an endless party on a sunny beach in Florida or Mexico. In Panama City Beach, Florida, a city with a permanent population of around 36,000, more than half a million university students arrive during the month of March to play and party, making it the number one spring break destination in the United States. A weeklong drinking binge is not for anyone, however, and a growing number of American university students have found a way to make spring break matter. For them, joining or leading a group of volunteers to travel locally or internationally and work to alleviate problems such as poverty, homelessness, or environmental damage makes spring break a unique learning experience that university students can feel good about. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose During one spring break week, students at James Madison University in Virginia participated in 15 “alternative spring break” trips to nearby states, three others to more distant parts of the United States, and five international trips. One group of JMU students traveled to Bogalusa, Louisiana, to help rebuild homes damaged by Hurricane Katrina. Another group traveled to Mississippi to organize creative activities for children living in a homless shelter. One group of students did go to Florida, but not to lie on the sand. They performed exhausting physical labor such as maintaining hiking trails and destroying invasive plant species that threaten the native Florida ecosystem. Students who participate in alternative spring break projects find them very rewarding. While most university students have to get their degrees before they can start helping people, student volunteers are able to help people now. On the other hand, the accommodations are far from glamorous. Students often sleep on the floor of a school or spend the week camping in tents. But students only pay around $250 for meals and transportation, which is much less than some of their peers spend to travel to more traditional spring break hotspots. Alternative spring break trips appear to be growing in popularity at universities across the United States. Students cite a number of reason for participating. Some appreciate the opportunity to socialize and meet new friends. Others want to exercise their beliefs about people’s obligation to serve humanity and make the world a better place whatever their reason, these students have discovered something that gives them rich rewards along with a break from school work. (“Active Skills for Reading: Book 2” by Neil J.Anderson – Thompson, 2007) Question 27: How many university students travel to Panama Beach City every March for spring break? A. Around 500,000 B. Around 10,000 C. Around 36,000 D. Around 50,000 Question 28: The article is mainly about______. A. sleeping on the floor or camping in tents. B. alternative spring break trips. C. drinking problems among university students. D. spring break in Florida and Mexico Question 29: The word “binge” in the second paragraph probably means______. A. having very little alcohol. B. refusing to do something. C. studying for too long. D. doing too much of something. Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a problem that alternative spring break trips try to help solve? A. Alcoholism. B. Environmental damage. C. Poverty. D. Homelessness. Question 31: Which of the following gives the main idea of the third paragraph? A. One group of JMU students worked on homes damaged by a hurricane. B. Some students work to help the environment on alternative spring break trips. C. Children living in homeless shelters enjoy creative activities. D. University students do many different types of work on alternative spring break trips. Question 32: The article implies that university students______. A. many take fewer alternative spring break trips in future. B. would prefer to wait until they have their degrees to start helping people. C. complain about accommodations on alternative spring break trips. D. spend more than $250 for traditional spring break trips. Question 33: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to______. A. degrees B. projects C. people D. students Question 34: Which of the following is mentioned as a reason for participating in alternative spring break trips? A. The hope of earning money. B. A personal opinion that people must help other people. C. A desire to travel to glamorous places. D. A wish to get away from family and friends. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 35: Yes, we went away on holiday last week, but it rained day in day out. A. every single day. B. every other day. C. every two days. D. every second day. Question 36: The government has passed laws to protect wildlife from commercial trade. A. enforced B. enabled C. ensured D. enacted Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37: School uniform is compulsory in most of Vietnamese schools. A. depended B. optional C. obligatory D. required Question 38: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 39: County legislators called for an update of the safety______for the Darcy Power Plant. A. regulate B. regulative C. regulatory D. regulation Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 40: She has two brothers, ______ are engineer. A. whom both B. both who C. both of whom D. both whom Question 41: It was so foggy that the driver couldn’t ______ the traffic signs. A. break out B. make out C. keep out D. take out Question 42: In most ______ developed countries, up to 50% of ______ population enters higher education at some time in their life. A. the- a B. the-0 C. 0- the D. 0-0 Question 43: ______ her inexperience, her failure to secure the contract was not surprising. A. By virtue of B. With regard to C. In view of D. In recognition of Question 44: George wouldn’t have met Mary______ to his brother’s graduation party. A. if he has not gone B. had not he gone C. had he not gone D. if he shouldn’t have gone Question 45: It was found that he lacked the ____ to pursue a difficult task to the very end. A. obligation B. engagement C. commitment D. persuasion Question 46: ______, I decided to stop trading with them. A. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer B. Though being the biggest dealer C. Being the biggest dealer D. Even though they were the biggest dealer Question 47: Mr Pike______ English at our school for 20 years before he retired last year. A. was teaching B. has been teaching C. is teaching D. had been teaching Question 48: She has just bought______. A. an interesting French old painting. B. an old interesting French painting. C. a French interesting old painting. D. an interesting old French painting. Question 49: -“Jenny’s always wanted to get to the top of her career, ______?” -“Yes, she’s an ambitious girl.” A. isn’t she B. hasn’t her C. has she D. hasn’t she Question 50: Not only ______ the exam but she also got a scholarship. A. she passes B. has she passed C. she has passed D. did she pass THE END! PRACTICE TEST 74 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. finished B. escaped C. damaged D. promised Question 2: A. clothes B. couches C. bosses D. boxes Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. signal B. instance C. airport D. mistake Question 4: A. chemistry B. decision C. statistics D. attention Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 5: We can use either verbal or non-verbal forms of communication. A. using gesture B. using speech C. using verbs D. using facial expressions Question 6: We are a very close- knit family. A. need each other. B. are close to each other. C. have very close relationship with each other. D. are polite to each other. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 7: They believe that life will be far better than it is today, so they tend to look on the bright side in any circ*mstance. A. be confident B. be smart C. be optimistic D. be pessimistic Question 8: English is a compulsory. subject in most of the schools in Vietnam. A. required B. optional C. paid D. dependent Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that need correction in each of the following sentences. Question 9: Today the (A) number of people (B) whom enjoy winter sports (C) is almost double (D) that of twenty years ago. A. number B. whom C. is D. that Question 10: There (A) are probably (B) around 3,000 languages (C) speaking in (D) the world. A. are B. around C. speaking D. the world Question 11: (A) The novelist Shirley Hazzard is noted (B) for the insight, poetic style, and (C) sensitive she (D) demonstrates in her works. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. The B. for C. sensitive D. demonstrates Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 12: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking with each other about their shopping. -Diana: “Look at this catalog, Anne. I think l want to get this red blouse”. -Anne: “______”. A. Don't you have one like this in blue? B. That's a long way to go, dear. C. No, thank you D. I'll go myself, then. Question 13: Henry is talking to his mother. -Henry: “ I've passed my driving test”. -His mother: “______”. A. All right. B. That's too bad. C. That's a good idea. D. Congratulations! Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions. Question 14: In many families, the most important decisions are______by many women. A. done B. made C. arrived D. given Question 15: Each of us must take______for our own actions. A. ability B. responsibility C. possibility D. probability Question 16: Thanks to the women's liberation, women can take part in______activities. A. social B. society C. socially D. socialize Question 17: I know you feel bad now, Tommy, but try to put it out of your mind. By the time you're an adult, you______all about it. A. are forgetting B. will have forgotten C. forget D. will be forgetting Question 18: ______, Nam Cao is a realistic writer, but he still used a lot of romance in his stories. A. On my part B. On the whole C. On the contrary D. On the other hand Question 19: Kate asked Janet where______the previous Sunday. A. has she been B. had she been C. she had been D. she has been Question 20: We live in a large house in______middle of the village. A. a B. an C. the D. No article Question 21: If Tom______an alarm, the thieves wouldn't have broken into his house. A. installs B. had installed C. have installed D. installed Question 22: My English teacher, Mrs.Jane, was the person______I had great respect. A. for whom B. whom C. for who D. that Question 23: Whole villages were______by the floods last year. A. come up B. looked after C. taken out D. wiped out Question 24: When my mother is busy preparing dinner, my father often gives her a hand______the housework. A. on B. with C. for D. about Question 25: UNESCO was established to encourage collaboration______nations in the areas______education, science, culture, and communication. A. between - in B. among – of C. between - of D. among – in Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: “Sorry, we're late. It took us ages to look for a parking place” said John. A. John said that he was late because he had spent a lot of time finding a parking place. B. John finally found a parking place after a long time searching even though they were late. C. John apologized for being late because it took them much time to find a parking place. D. John said sorry for being late because he had to try his best to look for a parking place. Question 27: People say that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott. A. He was said that he won a lot of money on the Vietlott. B. He is said to win a lot of money on the Vietlott. C. He won a lot of money on the Vietlott as people said. D. He is said to have won a lot of money on the Vietlott. Question 28: I have never played golf before. A. This is the first time I have ever played golf. B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already. C. It is the last time l played golf. D. It is the first time I had played golf. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. It was completely destroyed by the forest fire. A. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953; however, completely destroying the forest fire. B. My grandparents’ lake house, which was built in 1953, was completely destroyed by the forest fire. C. My grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953, so it was completely destroyed by the forest fire. D. The forest fire destroyed my grandparents’ lake house was built in 1953. Question 30: Her living conditions were difficult. However, she studied very well. A. Difficult as her living conditions, she studied very well. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose B. She studied very well thanks to the fact that she lived in difficult conditions. C. She studied very well in spite of her difficult living conditions. D. Although she lived in difficult conditions, but she studied very well. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out (31) ______ much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn't it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don't have any common sense? Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. (32) ______ scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person's IQ is his intelligence (33) ______ it is measured by a special test The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1,300 m.embers in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, (34) ______ the US. People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those (35) ______score over l48 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2% of the population. Question 31: A. what B. how C. which D. why Question 32: A. Although B. Until C. Despite D. Because Question 33: A. how B. as C. that D. so Question 34: A. enormously B. highly C. considerably D. mainly Question 35: A. which B. whom C. why D. who Read the Following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Although speech is the most advanced form of communication, there are many ways of communicating without using speech. Signals, signs, symbols, and gestures may be found in every known culture. The basic function of signal is to impinge upon the environment in such a way that it attracts attention, for example, the dots and dashes of a telegraph circuit. Coded to refer to speech, the potential for communication is really great. Less adaptable to the codification of words, signs also contain meaning in and of themselves. A stop sign or barber pole conveys meaning quickly and conveniently. Symbols are more difficult to describe than either signals or signs because of their intricate relationship with the receiver’s cultural perceptions. In some culture, applauding in a theater provides performers with an auditory symbol of approval. Gestures such as waving and handshaking also convey certain cultural messages. Although signals, signs, symbols, and gestures are very useful, they do have a major disadvantage. They usually do not allow ideas to be shared without the sender being directly adjacent to the receiver. As a result, means of communication intended to be used for long distances and extended periods are based upon speech. Radio, television, and the telephone are only a few. Question 36: Which of the following would be the best title for the passage? A. Gestures B. Signs and signals C. Speech D. Communication Question 37: What does the author say about the speech? A. It is dependent upon the advances made by inventors. B. It is the most advanced form of communication. C. It is necessary for communication to occur. D. It is the only true form of communication. Question 38: All of the following are true, EXCEPT______. A. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are found in every culture. B. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are very useful. C. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures also have some disadvantage. D. Signal, symbols, signs and gestures are only used for long distance contact. Question 39: The phrase “impinge upon”- in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning______. A. prohibit B. affect C. vary D. improve Question 40: The word “ it” in paragraph 1 refers to______. A. way B. environment C. speech D. signal Question 41: Applauding was cited as an example of______. A. a signal B. a sign C. a gesture D. a symbol Question 42: Why were the telephone, radio, and the television invented? A. Because people were unable to understand signs, signals, and symbols. B. Because people wanted to communicate across long distances. C. Because people believed that signs, signals, and symbols were obsolete. D. Because people wanted new forms of communication. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist.Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education in infancy. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subjects being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling. Question 43: What is the main idea of the passage? A. The best school teach a wide variety of subject. B. Education and schooling are quite different experiences. C. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework. D. The more years students go to school, the better their education is. Question 44: What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” in paragraph 1? A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial. B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year. C. Summer school makes the school year too long. D. All of people's life is an education. Question 45: The word “chance” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to______. A. unexpected B. usual C. passive D. lively Question 46: The word “they”. in paragraph 3 refers______. A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats Question 47: The phrase “For example” in paragraph 3, introduces a sentence that gives examples of ______. A. similar textbooks. B. the results of schooling. C. the workings of a government. D. the boundaries of the subjects. Question 48: The passage support which of the following conclusions? A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant. B. Education systems need to be radically reformed. C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated. D. Education involves many years of professional training. Question 49: The passage is organized by ______. A. listing and discussing several educational problems. B. contrasting the meanings of two related words. C. narrating a story about excellent teacher. D. giving examples of different kinds of schools. Question 50: The writer seem to agree that ______. A. Schooling is more important than education. B. Education is not as important as schooling. C. Schooling is unlimited and more informal. D. Education is more influential than schooling. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 75 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed Question 2: A. sour B. hour C. pour D. flour Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs front the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. conserve B. achieve C. employ D. waver Question 4: A. perseverance B. application C. agriculture D. dedication Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: It is (A) recommended that (B) people (C) to take regular (D) exercise. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. recommended B. people C. to take regular D. exercise Question 6: (A) More than ten students (B) have failed the exam, (C) that surprised (D) the class teacher. A. More than B. have failed C. that D. the Question 7: The world is becoming more (A) industrialized and the number of animal (B) species that have become (C) extinct (D) have increased. A. industrialized B. species C. extinct D. have Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: He is exhausted. He ______ around the whole afternoon trying to clean the house before the guests arrive. A. has been running B. has run C. be running D. was running Question 9: Barack Obama is ______ President of ______ United States. A. the/ the B. a/ 0 C. the/ 0 D. the/ an Question 10: John would like to specialize______computer science. A. of B. to C. in D. at Question 11: ______he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came. A. Hardly had B. No sooner had C. No longer has D. Not until had Question 12: Many young people in rural areas don’t want to spend their lives on the farm like their ______ parents. So they leave their home villages to find well-paid jobs in the fast-growing industrial zones. A. long-term B. up-to-date C. weather-beaten D. wide-ranging Question 13: If she had known how awful this job was going to be, she______ it. A. would accept B. wouldn't accept C. wouldn’t have accepted D. would have accepted Question 14: John asked me ______that film the night before. A. that I saw B. had I seen C. if I had seen D. if had I seen Question 15: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural______. A. solidarity B. identity C. assimilation D. celebration Question 16: Waste paper can be used again after being ______. A. produced B. recycled C. wasted D. preserved Question 17: - “Your parents must be proud of your results at school". - “______” A. Sorry to hear that B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging. C. Of course D. I am glad you like it. Question 18: The government is aiming______50 % reduction______ unemployment. A. to/in B. at/in C. at/of D. for/of Question 19: No one enjoys ______ in public. A. being made fun of B. to be made fun of C. making fun of D. to make fun of Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions. Question 20: John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. -John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?” -Passer-by: “______”. A. Not way, sorry. B. Just round the comer over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here. Question 21: Lora has just bought a new skirt that she likes very much. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the following exchange. -Jane: “You look great in that red skirt, Lora!” -Lora: “______”. A. No, I don't think so. B. Oh, you don't like it, do you? C. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s. D. Thanks, my mum bought it. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I’m becoming increasingly absent-minded. Last week, I locked myself out of my house twice. A. being considerate of things. B. remembering to do right things. C. forgetful of one’s past D. often forgetting things. Question 23: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. informative B. delighted C. exciting D. essential Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked Question 25: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly. A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality. A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn. B. His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality. C. He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality. D. No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn. Question 27: In spite of his poverty, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause. A. He could not devote his life to the revolutionary cause because of his poverty. B. If he had not been so poor, he could have devoted his life to the revolutionary cause. C. Poor as he was, he led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause. D. He led a devoted life to the revolutionary cause, but he was so poor. Question 28: I thought Ỉ should not stay at home yesterday. A. I regretted staying at home yesterday. B. I regretted for staying at home yesterday, C. I regret for staying at home yesterday. D. I regret to stay at home yesterday. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions Question 29: People should not throw rubbish in the park. People should not cut down the trees in the park. A. People should either throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park. B. People should neither throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park. C. People should either throw rubbish nor cut down the trees in the park. D. People should neither throw rubbish or cut down the trees in the park Question 30: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party. A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn’t come. B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come. C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come. D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. In Germany, it's important to be serious in a work situation. They don't mix work and play so you shouldn't make jokes (31) ______ you do in the UK and USA when you first meet people. They work in a very organized way and prefer to do one thing at a time. They don't like interruptions or (32) ______changes of schedule. Punctuality is very important so you should arrive on time for appointments. At meeting, it’s important to follow the agenda and not interrupt (33) ______speaker. If you give a presentation, you should focus (34) ______ facts and technical information and the quality of your company's products. You should also prepare well, as they may ask a lot of questions. Colleagues normally use the family names, and title - for example 'Doctor' or 'Professor', so you shouldn't use first names (35) ______ a person asks you to. Question 31: A. while B. as if C. such as D. as Question 32: A. sudden B. suddenly C. abruptly D. promptly Question 33: A. other B. others C. another D. the other Question 34: A. on B. to C. at D. in Question 35: A. if only B. as C. unless D. since Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide - a key pollutant - and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. Question 36: Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify B. obliterate, destroy, annihilate C. allay, alleviate, reduce D. absorb, intake, consume Question 37: Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ______. A. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens. B. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens. C. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens. D. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city. Question 38: Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. B. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. C. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. D. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. Question 39: The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens except______. A. increased space for private relaxation. B. savings on heating and cooling costs . C. better food for city dwellers. D. improved air quality. Question 40: According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they______. A. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect. B. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen. C. do not require the use of valuable urban land. D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces. Question 41: The author’s tone in the passage is best described as ______. A. descriptive B. passionate C. informative D. argumentative Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that the author would most likely endorse a program that ______. A. permitted the construction of buildings in city park land provided they have rooftop gardens. B. extended discounts on plants to customers who use them to create rooftop gardens. C. offered free admission to schools willing to take their students on field trips to the city park. D. promised vacation getaways to cooler destinations for those trapped in the city at the peak of summer. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. One of the most interesting authors of the twentieth century, J.R.R Tolkien, achieved fame through his highly inventive trilogy. The Lord of the Rings. Born in 1892, Tolkien received his education from Oxford and then served in World War I. After the war, he became a professor of Anglo -Saxon and English language and literature at Oxford University. Although published in 1965, the three books that comprise the Lord of the Rings were written in intervals from 1936 to 1949. This was mainly due to Tolkien's responsibilities as a professor and the outbreak of World War II. By the late 1960s, this fascinating trilogy had become a sociological phenomenon as young people intently studied the mythology and legends created by Tolkien. The trilogy is remarkable not only for its highly developed account of historical fiction but also its success as a modern heroic epic. The main plot describes the struggle between good and evil kingdom as they try to acquire a magic ring that has the power to rule the world. The novels, which are set in a time called Middle Earth, describe a detailed fantasy world. Established before humans populated the Earth, Middle Earth was inhabited by good and evil creatures such as hobbits, elves, monsters, wizards, and some humans. The characters and the setting of Middle Earth were modeled after mythological stories from Greece and Northern Europe. Although readers have scrutinized the texts for inner meaning and have tried to connect the trilogy with Tolkien's real life experiences in England during World War II, he denied the connection. He claims that the story began in his years as an undergraduate student and grew out of his desire to create mythology and legends about elves and their language. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Tolkien was a masterful fantasy novelist who used his extensive knowledge of folklore to create a body of work that is still read and enjoyed throughout the world today. Question 43: What can we assume is NOT true about Middle Earth? A. Middle Earth was based on European folktales. B. Middle Earth was a fictional world. C. The good and evil kingdom fought for the power. D. People dominated Middle Earth. Question 44: The word "scrutinized” in the fourth paragraph could be replaced by______. A. examined B. denied C. enjoyed D. criticized Question 45: What does this paragraph mainly discuss? A. J.R.R Tolkien's work as a professor. B. All of J.R.R Tolkien's fantasy books. C. J.R.R Tolkien and his trilogy. D. The popularity of J.R.R Tolkien. Question 46: According to the passage, when did "the Lord of the Rings" trilogy become popular with young people? A. In the late 1960s B. After World War II C. In 1892 D. Between 1936 and 1946 Question 47: When did Tolkien begin to create this trilogy? A. When he was a student B. During World War I C. When he was a professor D. During World War II Question 48: What does the word "trilogy" in the first paragraph mean? A. A specific type of fantasy novel. B. A long novel. C. A group of three literary books. D. An unrelated group of books. Question 49: What is the setting of Tolkien's trilogy? A. Modem - day Greece. B. England in the 1800's. C. Oxford University. D. Middle Earth. Question 50: The word "fascinating" in the second paragraph could be replaced by ______. A. thrilling B. extremely interesting C. boring D. Terrifying THE END! PRACTICE TEST 76 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation of the underlined part in each of the following questions from 1 to 2. Question 1: A. advises B. raises C. devises D. goes Question 2: A. example B. exotic C. excellent D. exhaust Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions from 3 to 4. Question 3: The history of the United States is not long. It is interesting. A. The history of the United States is too long to be interesting. B. The history of the United States is not long enough to be interesting. C. The history of the United States is interesting whereas not long. D. The history of the United States is not long but interesting. Question 4: Some economists argue that new technology cause unemployment. Others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. A. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment, so others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. B. Arguing that new technology causes unemployment, other economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created. C. Besides the argument that new technology causes unemployment, some economists feel that it allows more jobs to be created. D. Some economists argue that new technology causes unemployment whereas others feel that it allows more jobs to be created. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 5 to 16. Question 5: We should participate in the movement _____ to conserve the natural environment. A. to organize B. organized C. organizing D. which organized Question 6: Some snakes lay eggs, but ______ give birth to live offspring. A. others B. the other C. other D. the others Question 7: A number of prisoners ______ on the occasion of the Independence Day this year. A. have been released B. has been released C. were released D. was released Question 8: Jack found it hard to ______ the loss of his little dog. A. get over B. put off C. get along D. turn over Question 9: Housework is less tiring and boring thanks to the invention of ______ devices. A. labor-saving B. environment-friendly C. pollution-free D. time-consuming Question 10: The more ______ and positive you look, the better you will feel. A. confidence B. confident C. confide D. confidently Question 11: They'll be able to walk across the river______. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. if the ice is thick enough B. if the ice will be thick enough C. when the ice will be thick enough D. unless the ice is thick enough Question 12: Granny is completely deaf. You will have to ______ allowances for her. A. bring B. find C. give D. make Question 13: Many people are still in ____ habit of writing silly things in ____ public places. A. the – the B. the - 0 C. 0 - the D. 0 - 0 Question 14: Since 1950 the world ______ nearly one-fifth of the soil from its agricultural land and one-fifth of its tropical forests.A. has lost B. lost C. was losing D. had been lost Question 15: _____the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of going there by train.A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering Question 16: Students are______less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures. A. under B. above C. out of D. upon Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 17 to 21. Nowadays people are more aware that wildlife all over the world is in danger. Many species of animals are threatened, and could easily become (17) ______if we do not make an effort to protect them. There are many reasons for this. In some cases, animals are hunted for their fur or for other valuable parts of their bodies. Some birds, (18) ______as parrots are caught alive and sold as pets. For many animals and birds, the problem is that their habitat - the place where they live - is disappearing. More (19) ______is used for farms, for houses or industry, and there are fewer open spaces than there once were. Farmers use powerful chemicals to help them (20) ______ better crops, but these chemicals pollute the environment and harm wildlife. The most successful animal on earth - human beings - will soon be the only ones left, (21) ______ we can solve this problem. Question 17: A. extinctive B. extinction C. extinct D. extinctions Question 18: A. for B. such C. like D. or Question 19: A. area B. earth C. land D. soil Question 20: A. go B. run C. make D. grow Question 21: A. however B. unless C. because D. if Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 22 to 23. Question 22: Helen Keller, blind and deaf from an early age, developed her sense of smell so finely that she could identify friends by their personal odors. A. classify B. communicate with C. describe D. recognize Question 23: The device is very sophisticated and should only be operated by someone who is familiar with it. A. delicate B. complex C. fragile D. resilient Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions from 24 to 25. Question 24: A. preparation B. transportation C. diagnostic D. technology Question 25: A. summer B. carpet C. visit D. include Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions from 26 to 28. Question 26: It was careless of you to leave the windows open last night. A. You shouldn’t leave the windows open last night. B. You are so careless that you left the windows open last night. C. You shouldn’t have left the windows open last night. D. You might have been careless because you left the windows open last night. Question 27: Wealthy as they were, they were far from happy. A. They were as wealthy as they were happy. B. They were not happy as they were wealthy. C. Even if they were wealthy, they were not unhappy. D. Although they were wealthy, they were not happy. Question 28: The boy was too fat to run far. A. The boy was very fat and couldn’t run far. B. The boy’s fatness didn’t stop him running far. C. The boy had to run a lot because he was too fat. D. The boy became ill because he was too fat. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 29 to 36. Advertising helps people recognize a particular brand, persuades them to try it, and tries to keep them loyal to it. Brand loyalty is perhaps the most important goal of consumer advertising. Whether they produce cars, canned foods or cosmetics, manufacturers want their customers to make repeated purchases. The quality of the product will encourage this, of course, but so, too, will affect advertising. Advertising relies on the techniques of market research to identify potential users of a product. Are they homemakers or professional people? Are they young or old? Are they city dwellers or country dwellers? Such Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose questions have a bearing on where and when ads should be placed. By studying readership breakdowns for newspapers and magazines as well as television ratings and other statistics, an advertising agency can decide on the best way of reaching potential buyers. Detailed research and marketing expertise are essential today when advertising budgets can run into thousands of millions of dollars. Advertising is a fast-paced, high-pressure industry. There is a constant need for creative ideas that will establish a personality for a product in the public's mind. Current developments in advertising increase the need for talented workers. In the past, the majority of advertising was aimed at the traditional white family - breadwinner father, nonworking mother, and two children. Research now reveals that only about 6 percent of American households fit this stereotype. Instead, society is fragmented into many groups, with working mothers, single people and older people on the rise. To be most successful, advertising must identify a particular segment and aim its message toward that group. Advertising is also making use of new technologies. Computer graphics are used to grab the attention of consumers and to help them see products in a new light. The use of computer graphics in a commercial for canned goods, for instance, gave a new image to the tin can. Question 29: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How to develop a successful advertising plan. B. New techniques and technologies of market research. C. The central role of advertising in selling products. D. The history of advertising in the United States. Question 30: The word "this" in bold type in paragraph 1 refers to______. A. the quality of the product B. effective advertising C. repeatedly buying the same brand D. the most important goal Question 31: It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that advertisers must______. A. encourage people to try new products B. aim their message at homemakers and professional people C. know about the people who will buy the product D. place several ads in newspapers and magazines Question 32: According to paragraph 2, market research includes______. A. studying television ratings. B. hiring researchers with backgrounds in many fields. C. searching for talented workers. D. determining the price of a product. Question 33: The author implies that the advertising industry requires______. A. millions of dollars B. a college-educated work force C. innovative thinking D. government regulation Question 34: According to the passage, most advertising used to be directed at______. A. working mothers with children B. two-parent families with children C. unmarried people D. older adults Question 35: The phrase "in a new light" in bold type in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______. A. differently B. with the use of color enhancement C. more distinctly D. in a more energy-efficient way Question 36: Where in the passage does the author give an example of a new development in advertising? A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 5 D. Paragraph 3 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions from 37 to 39. Question 37: (A) A person's body postures, movements (B) but positions more often tell us (C) exactly (D) what they mean. A. A person's B. but C. exactly D. what Question 38: I believe that (A) only very self-confident, (B) knowledge and attentive students (C) will prefer 100% of (D) eye contact time. A. only very B. knowledge C. will prefer D. eye contact time. Question 39: (A)The major goals of primary education is (B) to achieve basic literacy (C) and numeracy (D) among all students. A. The major goals B. to achieve C. and D. among all students Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 46. Instructors at American colleges and universities use many different teaching methods. Some instructors give assignments everyday. They grade homework. Students in their classes have to take many quizzes, a midterm exam, and a final test. Other instructors give only writing assignments. Some teachers always follow a course outline and usually use the text book. Others send students to the library for assignments. The atmosphere in some classrooms is very formal. Students call their instructors “Professor Smith,” “Mrs Jones,” and so on. Some teachers wear business clothes and give lectures. Other classrooms have an informal Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose atmosphere. Students and teachers discuss their ideas. Instructors dress informally, and students call them by their first names. American teachers are not alike in their teaching styles. At most American colleges and universities, facilities for learning and recreation are available to students. Students can often use type-writers, tape recorders, video machines, and computers at libraries and learning centres. They can buy books, notebooks, and other things at campus stores. They can get advice on their problems from counselors and individual help with their classes from tutors. Students can relax and have fun on campus, too. Some schools have swimming pools and tennis courts. Most have snack bars and cafeterias. Question 40: What is the main idea of the first paragraph? A. Ways of using the textbook B. Ways of giving assignments C. Ways of teaching D. Ways of taking an exam. Question 41: Where do students call their instructors “Professor Smith,” “Mrs Jones,”? A. In classrooms with informal atmosphere B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere C. At libraries D. At learning centres Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE ? A. American teachers do not dress informally. B. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always formal. C. The atmosphere in American classrooms is always relaxed and friendly. D. American students can call their teachers by their first names. Question 43: What does the phrase business clothes in paragraph 2 mean? A. clothes that only business people wear. B. trendy clothes C. casual clothes D. formal clothes Question 44: Where do students and teachers discuss their ideas? A. In classrooms with informal atmosphere B. In classrooms with formal atmosphere C. At libraries D. At learning centres Question 45: What can’t students do at most American colleges and universities? A. buy anything at campus stores. B. ask their counselors and tutors for advice. C. use the computers that are linked to libraries. D. have tutors and counselors solved their problems. Question 46: Which of the following statements is NOT true about schools in American? A. They are well-equipped. B. They have stores on campus. C. They have no recreation facilities. D. They offer sports and leisure facilities for students. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following exchanges from 47 to 48. Question 47: Jane: “Would you rather have coffee or orange juice?” Susan: “______”. A. I like both B. I have either C. Either, please D. I’d rather to have coffee Question 48: Khanh: “I’d like the blue jacket, please! Can I try it on?” Tien: “Yes, ______”. A. you would B. you must C. certainly D. you do Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions from 49 to 50. Question 49: I prefer secure jobs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time. A. challenging B. demanding C. safe D. stable Question 50: The format allowed me to offer constructive criticism and ensure that their conversation remained on track during the project. A. useful B. negative C. meaningful D. Positive THE END! PRACTICE TEST 77 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 1: It is raining cats and dogs outside. I want to climb the mountain today but I can’t. A. I can’t carry out my mountain climbing because there are many cats and dogs falling out the sky. B. It is the heavy rain that prevents me from climbing the mountain today. C. I find it rather hard to climb the mountain despite a heavy downpour outside. D. The heavy rain makes it possible for me to continue going climbing today. Question 2: The most successful candidates are not always the best educated. They are the best trained in the technique. A. The most successful candidates are the best at training in the technique, if not they will need education. B. The most successful candidates are the people who are trained well in the technique, although well educated. C. The most successful candidates are not always the best educated, but the best trained in the technique. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. The most successful candidates are not only the best educated but also the best trained in the technique. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 3: ______, he would have been able to pass the exam. A. If he studied more B. Had he studied more C. If he were studying to a greater degree D. Studying more Question 4: You are old enough to take ______ for what you have done. A. responsibility B. responsible C. responsibly D. irresponsible Question 5: A new study group has been set ______ by the government. A. out B. up C. away D. down Question 6: We would rather Helen ______ us all the information we needed . We should have been well informed. A. sent B. send C. had sent D. have sent Question 7: Only because she had to support her family ______ to leave school. A. that Alice decided B. so Alice decided C. Alice decided D. did Alice decide Question 8: The majority of primary school teachers ______ women. A. is B. are C. includes D. including Question 9: After a ______ hesitation, she began to speak with such a convincing voice. A. rude B. impolite C. small D. slight Question 10: This is his fifth day on the tour. He ______ four countries. A. has already visited B. already visited C. visited D. is visiting Question 11: ______ objective primary education is to provide students with basic knowledge of the country’s history, ______ geography and traditions. A. 0/a B. The/the C. The/0 D. An/the Question 12: Not all men are connected with ______ physical attractiveness of their girlfriends and wives. A. a B. the C. an D. 0 Question 13: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children’s sake. A. terms B. will C. friendship D. relations Question 14: They stayed for hours, ______ my mother was very annoyed about. A. that B. which C. this D. whom Question 15: Not until he was twenty five years old______ pursuit a scientific career. A. he had B. has he C. he has D. did he Question 16: Look! The yard is wet. It ______ last night. A. couldn’t have rained B. must rain C. must have rained D. should rain Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. People travel for a lot of reasons: Some tourists go to see battlefields or religious shrines. Others are looking for culture, or simply want to have their pictures taken in front of famous places. But most European tourists are looking for a sunny beach to lie on. Northern Europeans are willing to pay a lot of money and put up with a lot of inconveniences for the sun because they have so little of it. Residents of cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam spend a tot of their winter in the dark because the days are so short, and much of the rest of the year in the rain. This is the reason why the Mediterranean has always attracted them. Every summer, more than 25 million people travel to Mediterranean resorts and beaches for their vacation. They all come for the same reason, sun! The huge crowds mean lots of money for the economies of Mediterranean countries. Italy’s 30,000 hotels are booked solid every summer. And 13 million people camp out on French beaches, parks and roadsides. Spain’s long sandy coastline attracts more people than anywhere else. 37 million tourists visit yearly, or one tourist for every person living in Spain. But there are signs that the area is getting more tourists than it can handle. The Mediterranean is already one of the most polluted seas on earth. And with increased tourism, it’s getting worse. The French can’t figure out what to do with all the garbage left by campers around St. Tropez. And in many places, swimming is dangerous because of pollution. None of this, however, is spoiling anyone’s fun. The Mediterranean gets more popular every year with tourists. Obviously, they don’t go there for clean water and solitude. They tolerate traffic jams and seem to like crowded beaches. They don’t even mind the pollution. No matter how dirty the water is, the coastline still looks beautiful. And as long as the sun shines, it’s still better than sitting in the cold rain in Berlin, London, or Oslo. Question 17: In paragraph 2, cities like London, Copenhagen, and Amsterdam are mentioned _______. A. to prove that they have got more tourism than they handle. B. to tell us how wealthy their people are. C. to suggest that these cities lack places of historic interest and scenic beauty. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. to show that they are not good cities in terms of geography and climate. Question 18: According to the passage, which of the following factors might spoil the tourists’ fun at Mediterranean resorts and beaches? A. Polluted water B. Traffic jams C. Rainy weather D. Crowded buses Question 19: The writer seems to imply that Europeans travel mostly for the reason that ______. A. they want to see historic remains or religious spots. B. they would like to take pictures in front of famous sites. C. they wish to escape from the cold, dark and rainy days back at home. D. they are interested in different cultural traditions and social customs. Question 20: The latter half of the last sentence in paragraph 3, “or one tourist for every person living in Spain” means _____. A. every Spanish is visited by a tourist every year. B. every person living in Spain has to take care of a tourist annually. C. every year almost as many tourists visit Spain as there are people living in that country. D. all the 37 million people living in Spain are tourists. Question 21: The word “tolerate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______. A. reject B. endure C. exclude D. neglect Question 22: The word “solid” in paragraph 3 means most nearly the same as ______. A. having no spaces inside. B. seeming to be hard to book. C. having less people than normal. D. being uncomfortable to live in. Question 23: According to the passage, which of the following countries attracts more tourists than the others? A. Greece B. France C. Spain D. Italy Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 24: A. achievement B. calculate C. attitude D. voluntary Question 25: A. dictation B. communicate C. occasion D. reservation Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 26: A. theme B. ethnic C. thunder D. honey-mouthed Question 27: A. levels B. requirements C. subject D. secondary Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 28: The teacher asked students to discuss the situation “ Which is better, supermarkets and traditional markets”. -Jennifer: “ I believe that supermarkets are much better than traditional markets”. -Katherine: “______. Each has its own features”. A. I can’t help thinking the same. B. I couldn’t agree with you more. C. . I disagree with you. D. That’s completely true. Question 29: Ann and Matthew are talking about the effects of global warming. -Ann: “Does global warming worry you?” -Matthew: “___________” A. I can’t bear to think about it. B. What a shame! C. I don’t like hot weather. D. Oh, it’s hotter and hotter. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so quickly that they don’t even know what their own lives will be like in a few years’ time. What follows is not science fiction. It is how experts see the future. You are daydreaming behind the steering wheel; is it too dangerous? No! That’s no problem because you have it on automatic pilot, and with its hi-tech computers and cameras, your car “know” how to get you home safe and sound. What is for lunch? In the old days you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or a pizza. Now you use your diagnostic machine to find out which foods your body needs. If your body needs more vegetables and less fat, your food-preparation machine makes you a salad. After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need to do your work. Thanks to your information screen and your latest generation computer, you needn’t go to the office any more. The information screen shows an urgentmessage from a co-worker in Brazil. You can instantly send back a reply to him and go on to deal with other matters. Question 30: What does “its” in line 5 refer to? Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. the future B. your home C. your car D. the steering wheel Question 31: What of the following statement is true about life in the future? A. People will go to work as they do today. B. Hi-tech equipment will be out of the question. C. It will be dangerous to drive cars because they are too fast. D. People can have balanced diets for their meal. Question 32: Which of the following is NOT true about life in the future? A. Eating is a problem because food contains too much fat B. There’s no need to concentrate much when driving. C. Contacts between people are almost instant. D. Getting information is a matter of just a few seconds. Question 33: According to the passage, what do people use a diagnostic machine for? A. To make food for them. B. To find out which foods their body needs C. To provide them with food. D. To sell food for humans. Question 34: Which “reply” CLOSET in meaning to? A. replay B. request. C. answer D. question Question 35: The word “urgent” in the last paragraph probably means _____. A. expected B. pressing C. unnecessary D. hurry Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage? A. What life is like in the future. B. The role of the computer in future life. C. What foods people will eat in the future. D. Life in the future will be the same as life at present. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37: Lucky will be like a dog with two tails if she gets into the team. A. very proud B. very exhausted C. extremely pleased D. extremely dazed Question 38: Some workers were inhibited from speaking by the presence of their managers. A. deferred B. discharged C. triggered D. prevented Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 39: But what the most prevents women from reaching the boardroom, say bosses and headhunters, is lack of hands-on experience of a firm’s core business. A. unavailable B. untested C. impractical D. insignificant Question 40: Nowadays, it was rather easy to buy a modern TV, and it does pack a punch to bring to life some really awesome visuals. A. have little effect on something. B. make bad things happen. C. prevent something from coming into use D. produce the results that aren’t intended Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 41: Maria says she’d like to have been put in a higher class. A. Maria wishes she is put in a higher class. B. Maria wishes she were put in a higher class. C. Maria wishes she had been put in a higher class. D. Maria wishes she will be put in a higher class. Question 42: His parents made him study for his exams. A. He was obliged to study for the exam by his parents. B. He was made to study for the exam by his parents. C. He is made to study for the exam by his parents. D. He was made study for the exam by his parents. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. EXAM ADVICE In Part Three of the Speaking Section you work together with a partner. You have to do a (43)______ task which usually lasts about 3 minutes. One possible task is “problem solving”, which means you have to look at some (44)______information and then discuss the problem with your partner. You may be shown photos, drawings, diagrams, maps, plans, advertisem*nts or computer graphics and it is (56) ______ that you study them carefully. If necessary, check you know exactly what to do by politely asking the examiner to repeat the instruction or make them clearer. While you are doing the task, the examiner will probably say very little and you should ask your partner questions and make (46) ______ if he or she is not saying much. If either of you have any real difficulties, the examiner may decide to step in and help. Normally, however, you will find plenty to say, which helps the assessor to give you a fair mark. This mark depends on your success in doing the task by competing with your partner, which includes taking (47) ______ in giving opinions and replying appropriately, although in the end it may be possible to “agree to disagree”. Question 43: A. lonely B. single C. unique D. once Question 44: A. optical B. visual C. noticeable D. obvious Question 45: A. essential B. needed C. helpful D. successful Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 46: A. speeches B. statements C. ideas D. suggestions Question 47: A. changes B. sides C. turns D. sentences Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 48: (A) What we know about certain diseases (B) are still not sufficient to prevent them (C) from spreading easily (D) among the population. A. What we know about B. are C. from spreading D. among Question 49: Meal time (A) also gives children a chance (B) to learn (C) how some of their favorite dishes (D) making. A. also gives B. to learn C. how D. making Question 50: (A) The food that Mark (B) is cooking in the kitchen (C) is smelling (D) delicious. A. The food B. is cooking C. is smelling D. Delicious THE END! PRACTICE TEST 78 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. It is a characteristic of human nature that people like to get together and have fun, and people live during America's frontier days were no exception. However, because life was hard and the necessities of day-to-day living took up their time, it was common for recreation to be combined with activities necessary for survival. One example of such a form of recreation was logrolling. Many frontier areas were heavily wooded, and in order to settle an area it was necessary to move the trees. A settler could cut down the trees alone, but help was needed to move the cut trees. After a settler had cut a bunch of trees, he would then invite is neighbours over for a logrolling. A logrolling is a community event where families got together for a combination of work and fun. The women would bring food and have a much needed and infrequent opportunity to relax and chat with friends, the children would play together exuberantly, and the men would hold lively competitions that involved rolling logs from place to place as quickly as possible. This was a day of fun for everyone involved, but as its foundation was the need to clear the land. Question 1: The main idea of the passage is that in America's frontier days ________ . A. people combined work with recreation B. people cleared land by rolling logs C. it was necessary for early settlers to clear the land D. a logrolling involved the community Question 2: The expression day-to-day could best be replaced by which of the following? A. daytime B. every day C. day after day D. today Question 3: According to the passage, what did people have to do first to settle an area? A. Develop recreation ideas B. Build farms C. Get rid of the trees D. Invite neighbors over Question 4: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about a logrolling? A. It involved a lot of people. B. It could be enjoyable. C. There could be a lot of movement. D. It was rather quiet. Question 5: This passage would probably be assigned reading in which of the following courses? A. Forestry B. Environmental Studies C. Psychology D. History The sentence 1, 2, 3, 4 in the following paragraph are in the wrong order. Choose the correct order to make a good paragraph. (1) Therefore, anyone who wants to drive must carry a driver’s license. (2) It’s divided into four steps: studying the traffic laws, taking the written test, learning to drive and taking the driving test. (3) Getting a driver’s license is a complicated process. (4) Driving a car is a necessity in today’s busy society, and it is also a special privilege. Question 6: A. 2, 4, 3, 1 B. 4, 1, 2, 3 C. 4, 1, 3, 2 D. 3, 4, 2, 1 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 7: A. unity B. university C. umbrella D. unit Question 8: A. feat B. seat C. beat D. great Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 9: A. yesterday B. applicant C. employment D. uniform Question 10: A. river B. result C. rewrite D. reuse Question 11: A. apply B. persuade C. reduce D. offer Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks. It was a Monday morning in the office and, as usual, everyone was busy sorting through their mail before starting work. The other staff had (12)____ that Nicky , one of the computer operators, had been (13)____ rather miserable recently and they wondered what might have been happened to make her so (14)____. Suddenly Nicky accidentally knocked over a cup of coffee. As she was clearing up the mess, the girl sitting next to her happened to glance at Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Nicky's right hand. There was a large swelling at the wrist. "What on earth have you (15) ____ to yourself? Does it hurt?" asked the girl. " Yes, it does. I think I've injured it using the computer", replied Nicky. " I think you'd better go and let the doctor (16) ____ it", said the girl. " Let's hope there's no permanent damage to your hand" . Question 12: A. regconized B. realized C. noticed D. identified Question 13: A. appearing B. seeming C. pretending D. looking Question 14: A. sick B. bored C. uninterested D. depressed Question 15: A. made B. done C. happened D. brought Question 16: A. check B. inspect C. examine D. investigate Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 17: Today students are under a lot of pressure due to the high expectation from their parents and teachers. A. nervousness B. emotion C. stress D. relaxation Question 18: Don’t tell Jane anything about the surprise party for Jack. She has got a big mouth. A. can’t eat a lot B. hates parties C. talks too much D. can keep secrets In italic below rae cues to make sentence. Choose the best answer. Question 19: heavy/ London/ fog/ cleared/ banning/ cars/ from/ city centre. A. Heavy fog in London was cleared banning cars from city centre. B. The heavy fog London was cleared by banning cars from city centre. C. The heavy fog in London was cleared by banning cars from city centre. D. The fog in London was cleared by ban cars from city centre. Question 20: Exhaust fumes/ motor/ vehicles/ pollute/ air. A. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollutes air.B. Exhaust fumes motor vehicles pollute air. C. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollute air. D. Exhaust fumes from motor vehicles pollute the air. Question 21: What/ you/ use/ Internet/ for? A. What do you use the Internet for? B. What do you use Internet for? C. What do you do the Internet for? D. What do you use the Internet? Mark the letter A,B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 22: Shall we go for a walk? A. What about go for a walk? B. What about going for walk? C. What about going for a walk? D. What about going a walk? Question 23: He thinks learning English is easy. A. He thinks it is not easy learning English. B. He thinks it is easy to learn English. C. He thinks it is easy learning English. D. He thinks it is easy learn English. Question 24: His parents advised him to study hard for his exam. A. He was advised to study hard for his exam. B. He was advised study hard for his exam. C. He was advised to study hard his exam. D. He is advised to study hard for his exam. Question 25: They have just stolen his car. A. His car have just been stolen. B. His car has just stolen. C. His car has just been stole. D. His car has just been stolen. Question 26: The car is too expensive for him to buy. A. He is not rich enough to buy a car. B. He is not rich enough to buy the car. C. He is not rich enough to buy car. D. He is poor enough to buy the car. Question 27: I’ll let you borrow the book but you must promise to return it next week. A. If you promise to return the book, I let you borrow it. B. If you promised to return the book, I’ll let you borrow it. C. If you promise to return the book next week, I’ll let you borrow it. D. If you promise to return the book next week, I won’t let you borrow it. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable respone to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 28: Linda is thanking Daniel for his birthday present. Linda: “Thanks for the book. I’ve been looking for it for months.” Daniel: “_______.” A. You can say thay again B. Thank you for looking for it C. I love reading books D. I’m glad you like it Question 29: David and his teacher are meeting at the school gate. David: “Good morning, Mr Dakin. How are you? Mr Dakin: “_______.” A. I’m busy now B. I’m fine. Thank you C. I’m going to home D. I’m having a class now Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 30: The place has rapidly evolved from a small fishing community into a thriving tourist resort. A. developed B. generated C. created D. increased Question 31: Many people left early because the film was uninterseting. A. exciting B. informative C. attractive D. boring Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 32: _________ in Shanghai than any other city in China. A. More people live B. More people living C. It has more people D. More living people Question 33: I can’t find my umbrella. I _________ it in the restaurant last night. A. must have left B. had left C. left D. might left Question 34: I wish everything _________ so expensive.A. wouldn’t be B. would be C. won’t beD. could be Question 35: The injured man couldn’t walk and had to _________ . A. be carried B. carry C. being carry D. be carrying Question 36: Mr Miller hates _________ .A. being kept waiting B. to be waiting C. being waiting D. to wait Question 37: The prisoner _________ to have escaped by climbing over the wall. A. thought B. is thought C. is think D. has thought Question 38: In England there is an old story about a man called Robin Hood. It’s said that he took money from _________ and gave it to the poor. A. rich people B. the rich C. rich person D. a rich people Question 39: We visited Canada and _________ United States.A. X B. a C. an D. the Question 40: I don’t mind your _________ the phone as long as you pay for your calls. A. use B. to use C. using D. used Question 41: On the slope of Long’s Peak in Colorado _________ the ruin of a giant tree. A. that lies B. lies C. where lies D. lie Question 42: A dolphin six _________ length canmove as fast as most ships. A. foot in B. feet in C. foot of D. feet of Question 43: The total weight of all the ants in the world is much greater than _________ . A. to all human beings B. all human beings is that C. that of all human beings D. is of all human beings Question 44: It’s earth’s gravity that _________ people their weight.A. gives B. give C. giving D. given Question 45: Generally speaking, people should have _________ as their desires allow. A. much education B. as much education C. education D. for education Question 46: Sleeping, resting and _________ are the best way to care for the cold. A. to drink fluids B. drank fluids C. one drinks fluids D. drinking fluids Question 47: Birds make nests in trees _______ hide their young in the leaves and branches. A. can where they B. where they can C. where can they D. where can Question 48: Children learn primarily by _________ the world around them. A. experiencing directly of B. experience direct C. directly physical experiencing D. direct physical experiencing of Question 49: Of Charles Dickens’ many novels, Great Expectations is perhaps _________ to many readers. A. the most satisfying one B. most satisfying one C. more than most satisfying one D. the more satisfying than Question 50: America’s first globe maker was James Wilson, who _________ and black smith in his earlier life. A. a farmer had been B. had been a farmer C. farming D. being a farmer PRACTICE TEST 79 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. communication B. situation C. information D. education Question 2: A. teacher B. pressure C. effort D. maintain Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. question B. minute C. disruptive D. suitable Question 4: A. systems B. interviews C. letters D. interests Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 5: Children in England don’t have to pay tuition fee when they go to ______ school. A. state B. private C. independent D. public Question 6: Waving, nodding, pointing and hand raising are considered ______ forms of communication. A. affective B. unusual C. verbal D. non-verbal Question 7: Traditionally in Vietnam, the wedding ceremony starts in front of the ______. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. house B. guests C. altar D. church Question 8: If I had ______ her address now, I would send her an invitation to my birthday party next week. A. had found B. found C. would find D. find Question 9: I’m trying to win a place at university, so I am ______ a lot of study pressure.A. for B. atC. underD. in Question 10: As I am the oldest child, I have to ______ my three little mischievous brothers. A. take off B. look for C. look after D. take after Question 11: According on Tuoitre Online, more than 100 people ______ when Typhoon Damrey struck Vietnam last November.A. had been killed B. were killed C. killed D. must kill Question 12: My classmate was really happy when she received the letter of ______ from Ho Chi Minh city University of Education.A. application B. refusal C. acceptance D. entrance Question 13: You should make a(n) ______ to answer the questions the interviewer asks. A. effort B. impression C. enthusiasm D. confidence Question 14: In England, an academic year is divided ______ three terms. Spring term, Summer term and Autumn term. A. into B. with C. From D. to Question 15: According to a recent survey, most young people think that they are concerned with ______ attractiveness when choosing a husband or wife. A. emotionless B. physical C. romantic D. physics Question 16: Children in Vietnam and England have to take the ______ at the end of their secondary education. A. semester B. state school C. GCSE examination D. education system Question 17: In my family, my mother ______ running the household . A. is willing to B. joins hands with C. comes up D. takes the responsibility for Question 18: She asked me ______my holidays the previous year. A. where I had spent B. where I spend C. where did I spend D. where I spent Question 19: He was the only ______ that was offered the job. A. applying B. application C. apply D. applicant Question 20: Last month. Mr. Donald Trump, ______ is the president of the US, visited Vietnam and had a wonderful time in this country.A. that B. who C. whose D. which Question 21: My mother allowed me to go out with my friends after I ______ my housework. A. had finished B. have finish C. would finish D. finish Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 22: Hoa and Lan are at the party. -Hoa: “You look very beautiful in that dress, Lan”. -Lan: “______”A. I don’t mind B. Thanks for your compliment C. You tell a lie D. I’m sorry Question 23: David is talking to his friend, Monica. -David: “______” -Monica: “Good luck for you”. A. I don’t like rock music B. Have a nice day C. I’m taking a test this afternoon D. How do you do? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: When you are at restaurant, you can raise your hand slightly to show that you need assistance. A. bill B. food C. menu D. help Question 25: I’m afraid I’m getting cold feet about this scheme as I’m not sure it’s such a good idea. A. happy about B. worried about C. calm about D. confident of Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 26: The first year at university was probably the best and most challenging year of my life. It caused me plenty of troubles. A. tricky B. tough C. easy D. difficult Question 27: Wearing school uniform is compulsory for students in most school in Vietnam. A. required B. dependent C. optional D. divided Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 28: If you wanted to be chosen for the job, you’ll have to be experienced in the field. A. in B. experienced C. wanted D. chosen for Question 29: Before the interview, candidates should find out as much as possibility about the job and the vacancy. A. about B. find out C. as possibility D. interview Question 30: Mr.Merlin, that dies at the end of the film Kingsman, is really good at computing and technology. A. computing B. is C. at D. that Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 31: I haven’t tried this kind of food before. A. It’s a long time since I tried this kind of food. B. I have tried this kind of food many times. C. This is the first time I had tried this kind of food. D. This is the first time I have tried this kind of food. Question 32: “You can trust me, I won’t let you down”, Tom said to me. A. Tom ordered me to trust him and promise not to let me down. B. Tom promised not to let me down. C. Tom advised me to trust him and not to let me down. D. Tom insisted on not letting me down. Question 33: Somebody broke into our cottage last Saturday. A. Our cottage was broken into last Saturday. B. Our cottage was being broken into last Saturday. C. Our cottage has been broken into last Saturday. D. Our cottage had broken into last Saturday. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 34: Binh Thuan province is famous for its scenery and beaches. It is located in the South Central Coast of Vietnam. A. Binh Thuan province, which is located in the South Central Coast of Vietnam, is famous for its scenery and beaches. B. Binh Thuan province, that is located in the South Central Coast of Vietnam, is famous for its scenery and beaches. C. Binh Thuan province which is located in the South Central Coast of Vietnam is famous for its scenery and beaches. D. Binh Thuan province, where is located in the South Central Coast of Vietnam, is famous for its scenery and beaches. Question 35: She didn’t know the whole story, so she was angry. A. She wouldn’t be angry if she had known the whole story. B. If she hadn’t been angry, she would have known the whole story. C. If she knew the whole story, she wouldn’t be angry. D. If she had known the whole story, she wouldn’t have been angry. Read the following passage and mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the blanks. Some years ago, my daughter was studying English at a university on the south coast. One evening, she phoned to (36) ______ me that what she really wanted to do was a travel round the world, (37)______ she was looking into the possibility of working in another country. She had seen several advertisem*nts in the paper for student teachers of English abroad, and she was interested in one in Italy, (38)______ she was desperate to visit She decided that this would be a good way to achieve her ambition, so she was writing to apply for the job. The reply (39) ______ a long time to arrive, but eventually she received a letter asking if she would go for an interview in London the following week. She was so excited that she immediately got in touch with the school owner and agree to attend the interview . She was determined that nothing would prevent her (40)______ doing what she had set out to do. Question 36: A. speak B. say C. tell D. talk Question 37: A. but B. so C. because D. as Question 38: A. that B. where C. when D. which Question 39: A. was B. took C. spent D. passed Question 40: A. from B. about C. in D. of Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. On the fourth Thursday in November, in houses around the United States, families get together for a feast, or a large meal. Almost all families eat turkey and cranberry sauce for this meal, and have pumpkin pie for dessert. This feast is part of a very special day, the holiday of Thanksgiving. In 1620 the Pilgrims made a difficult trip across the ocean from England. They landed in what is now Massachusetts. In England the Pilgrims had not been allowed to freely practice their religion. So they went to the New World in search of religious freedom. The Pilgrims' first winter was very hard. Almost half the group died of cold, hunger and disease. But the Indians of Massachusetts taught the Pilgrims to plant corn, to hunt and to fish. When the next fall came, the Pilgrims had plenty of food. They were thankful to God and the Indians and had a feast to give thanks. They invited the Indians to join them. This was the first Thanksgiving. Thanksgiving became a national holiday many years later because of the effort of a woman named Sarah Hale. For forty years Sarah Hale wrote to each president and asked for a holiday of Thanksgiving. At last she was successful. In 1863 President Lincoln declared Thanksgiving a holiday. How much is Thanksgiving today like the Pilgrims’ Thanksgiving? In many ways they are different. For example, historians think that the Pilgrims ate deer, not turkey. The idea of Thanksgiving, though, is very much the same: Thanksgiving is a day on which we celebrate and give thanks. Question 41: When did the the Pilgrims make a difficult trip to across the ocean from England? A. in 1863 B. in 1621 C. in 1830 D. in 1620 Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 42: The Pilgrims immigrated to the New World because______. A. They wanted to search for religious freedom.B. They wanted to be taught how to plant corn. C. They wanted to have more land to cultivate.D. They wanted to make a difficult trip. Question 43: According to the passage, today’s Thanksgiving ______. A. is only celebrated in Massachusetts.B. is a day on which the Pilgrims eat deer. C. is different from the Pilgrims’s Thanksgiving in many ways. D. is just like the Pilgrims’s Thanksgiving. Question 44: Which of the following is NOT true about Thanksgiving? A. It is celebrated on the fourth Thursday on November. B. It is a day on which Americans celebrate and give thanks. C. Americans usually have turkey, cranberry sauce and pumpkin pie for this occasion. D. It became a national holiday thanks to President Lincoln’s 40-year efforts. Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to ______. A. families B. the Pilgrims C. thanks D. the Native Americans Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. As working women continue to receive better and better wages, housewives still work at home without receiving pay – checks. Should a woman who works at home, doing the housework and caring for children, be paid for her service? In a 1986 study at Cornell University, sociologists found that the value of the services of a housewife averaged $ 11,600 a year. This rate was based on a family composed of a husband, wife, and three young children. The $ 11,600 is what the husband would have to pay if he hired others to take over his wife’s household chores. The researchers concluded that it would be fair for husbands to pay wives according to federal guidelines for minimum wages. Another plan for rewarding women who work at home has been suggested by a former Secretary of Health and Human Services. He says that full-time housewives should be allowed to pay social security taxes, with their employers contributing part of the payment. He feels that the present system is unfair. He said, “ If you stay at home and raise a family, nobody will give you credit for it.” Question 46: What is the main purpose of this passage ? A. To suggest that housewives should be paid for their household chores.B. To ask men to treat wives better. C. To encourage women to go out to work. D. To suggest that men should share the housework with their wives. Question 47: A housewife’s services in a family of five people are worth______. A. $ 160 a mouth on average B. nearly $ 1,000 a mouth on average. C. more than $ 1,000 a mouth on average. D. $ 1,600 a mouth on average. Question 48: According to the researchers, husbands should ______. A. pay wages to their wives for their housework. B. hire others to take over their wives’ household chores. C. help their wives with the housework. D. care for the children. Question 49: The word “employers” in the passage refers to ___________. A. their sponsors B. their husband C. their owners D. their bosses Question 50: What is NOT true about the passage? A. Full-time housewives are allowed to pay social security taxes. B. Women who go to work get more offers than housewives C. Unlike working women, housewives get no pay for housework.D. Housewives’services should be rewarded. PRACTICE TEST 80 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1: My mother reminded me to remember to water her house plants. A. to water B. to remember C. house plants D. reminded Question 2: Bill is often late for class, which makes his teachers angrily. A. for B. angrily C. which D. is Question 3: Mumps are a very common disease which usually affects children. A. which B. are C. usually D. common disease Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. courteous B. decent C. attract D. signal Question 5: A. attitude B. summary C. partnership D. terrific Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 6: Computer models help to determine whether a particular area is likely to flood. A. make up B. take over C. put up D. find out Question 7: Let’s wait for her; I’m sure she’ll turn up before long. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. enter B. arrive C. visit D. return Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions. Question 8: - John: “Your parents must be proud of your result at school.” - Laura: “______”. A. Sorry to hear that. B. I’m glad you like it. C. Never mind. D. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging. Question 9: - Anne: “Well, cats are very good at catching mice around the house”. - John: “______”. A. Nothing more to say. B. You can say that again. C. Yes, I hope so. D. No, dogs are very good, too. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 10: Mr. Smith’s new neighbors appear to be very friendly.A. hostile B.inapplicable C. futileD. amicable Question 11: My first impression of her was her impassive face. A. respectful B. emotional C. solid D. fractious Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: He is one of the most______bosses I have ever worked with. He behaves rudely to not only me but also others in the staff.A. communicative B. thoughtful C. attentive D. impolite Question 13: I’d rather you ______the kids drop bits of pizza all over my new sofa. A. won’t let B. didn’t let C. don’t let D. aren’t letting Question 14: “Why did you get the bus to work?” “I’m having my car______at the moment.” A. serviced B. to service C. to be serviced D. servicing Question 15: Gestures such as waving and handshaking are______forms of communication. A. non-verbal B. regular C. direct D. verbal Question 16: It is essential that every student______the exam before attending the course. A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed Question 17: If a boss wants to have a well-qualified staff, he should have to pay his employees______. A. appropriate B. appropriately C. appropriation D. appropriating Question 18: Ellie asked Stan______to look at the new catalogue. A. that he wanted B. whether he wants C. if he wanted D. did he want Question 19: I am sick of rain and bad weather! Hopefully, when we______up tomorrow morning, the sun______ . A. wake / shines B. wake / has been shining C. wake / will be shining D. will wake / will be shining Question 20: “Why were you so tired yesterday?” “Because I______all morning.” A. jog B. was jogged C. had been jogging D. had been jogged Question 21: These quick and easy______can be effective in the short term, but they have a cost. A. solve B. solutions C. solvability D. solvable Question 22: Don’t drop your sweet wrapper on the floor,______? A. won’t you B. do you C. aren’t you D. will you Question 23: We are a very close-knit family and very supportive______one another. A. of B. to C. in D. with Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 24 to 28. EXAMS OR CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT? How do you feel when you (24) ______an exam? Do you always succeed in getting all your ideas down on paper, or do you sometimes feel that you’re (25) ______a mess of it? Apart from those lucky few who sail through exams, most secondary school (26) ______find them very stressful. Many teachers are aware of the problems their students face and use a different method for measuring their progress: continuous assessment. With continuous assessment, students are given various (27) ______to do through the year. All their marks are added together to produce a total mark at the end of the year. Students have to take more responsibility for their education because they can’t rely on doing well on just one day. Also, they have more time to (28) ______ over their work, meaning that they are able to do their best. Question 24: A. sit B. write C. make D. give Question 25: A. doing B. making C. having D. taking Question 26: A. colleagues B. classmates C. perfects D. students Question 27: A. tasks B. efforts C. achievements D. results Question 28: A. consider B. imagine C. think D. examine Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. They want to increase their sale. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising so that they want to increase their sale. B. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising, but they want to increase their sale. C. Companies spend millions of dollars on advertising with the aim of increasing their sale. D. In order that they want to increase their sale, companies spend millions of dollars on advertising. Question 30: Joe does a lot of exercise. He’s still very fat. A. Even though Joe does a lot of exercise, he’s still very fat. B. Joe does a lot of exercise, so he’s still very fat C. Joe’s very fat, but he does a lot of exercise. D. Despite the fact that doing a lot of exercise, he’s still very fat. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 37. Because writing has become so important in our culture, we sometimes think of it as more real than speech. A little thought, however, will show why speech is primary and writing secondary to language. Human beings have been writing (as far as we can tell from surviving evidence) for at least 5000 years; but they have been talking for much longer, doubtless ever since there have been human beings. When writing did develop, it was derived from and represented speech, although imperfectly. Even today there are spoken languages that have no written form. Furthermore, we all learn to talk well before we learn to write; any human child who is not severely handicapped physically or mentally will learn to talk: a normal human being cannot be prevented from doing so. On the other hand, it takes a special effort to learn to write. In the past many intelligent and useful members of society did not acquire the skill, and even today many who speak languages with writing systems never learn to read or write, while some who learn the rudiments of those skills do so only imperfectly. To affirm the primacy of speech over writing is not, however, to disparage the latter. One advantage writing has over speech is that it is more permanent and makes possible the records that any civilization must have. Thus, if speaking makes us human, writing makes us civilized. Question 31: We sometimes think of writing as more real than speech because______. A. it has become very important in our culture. B. human beings have been writing for at least 5000 years. C. writing is secondary to language. D. people have been writing since there have been human beings. Question 32: The author of the passage argues that______. A. all languages should have a written form. B. writing has become too important in today’s society. C. everyone who learns to speak must learn to write. D. speech is more basic to language than writing. Question 33: Normal human beings______. A. learn to talk after learning to write. B. learn to write before learning to talk. C. learn to write and to talk at the same time. D. learn to talk before learning to write. Question 34: In order to show that learning to write requires effort, the author gives the example of ______. A. severely handicapped children. B. people who learn the rudiments of speech. C. intelligent people who couldn’t write. D. people who speak many languages. Question 35: According to the author, one mark of any civilized society is that it______. A. keeps written records. B. affirms the primacy of speech over writing. C. teaches its children to speak perfectly. D. affirms the primacy of writing over speech. Question 36: The word “advantage” in the last paragraph most closely means______. A. skill B. rudiments C. domination D. benefit Question 37: Which of the following is NOT true? A. It is easy to acquire the writing skill. B. Writing has become so important in our culture. C. Writing represents speech, but not perfectly. D. Speech is essential but writing has important benefits. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 45. If parents bring up a child with the sole aim of turning the child into a genius, they will cause a disaster. According to several leading educational psychologists, this is one of the biggest mistakes which ambitious parents make. Generally, the child will be only too aware of what his parents expect, and will fail. Unrealistic parental expectations can cause great damage to children However, if parents are not too unrealistic about what they expect their children to do, but are ambitious in a sensible way, the child may succeed in doing very well – especially if the parents are very supportive of their child. Michael Collins is very lucky. He is crazy about music, and his parents help him a lot by taking him to concerts and arranging private piano and violin lessons for him. They even drive him 50 kilometers twice a week for violin lessons. Michael’s mother knows very little about music, but his father plays the trumpet in a large orchestra. However, he never makes Michael enter music competitions if he is unwilling. Winston Smith, Michael’s friend, however, is not so lucky. Both his parents are successful musicians, and they set too high a standard for Winston. They want their son to be as successful as they are and so they enter him for every piano competition held. They are very unhappy when he does not win. Winston is always afraid that he will disappoint his parents and now he always seems quiet and unhappy. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 38: One of the serious mistakes parents can make is to______. A. push their child into trying too much. B. help their child to become a genius. C. make their child become a musician. D. neglect their child’s education. Question 39: Who have criticized the methods of some ambitious parents? A. Successful musicians. B. Unrealistic parents. C. Their children. D. Educational psychologists. Question 40: Michael Collins is fortunate in that______. A. his father is a musician. B. his parents are quite rich. C. his parents help him in a sensible way. D. his mother knows little about music. Question 41: The phrase "crazy about" in in the paragraph 3 mostly means______. A. surprised at B. extremely interested in C. completely unaware of D. confused about Question 42: Winston’s parents push their son so much and he______. A. has won a lot of piano competitions. B. cannot learn much music from them. C. has become a good musician. D. is afraid to disappoint them. Question 43: The word "They" in the paragraph 3 refers to______. A. Michael’s parents B. violin lessons C. parents in general D. concerts Question 44: All of the following people are musical EXCEPT______. A. Winston’s father B. Winston’s mother C. Michael’s father D. Michael’s mother Question 45: The two examples given in the passage illustrate the principle that______. A. successful parents always have intelligent children. B. successful parents often have unsuccessful children. C. parents should let the child develop in the way he wants. D. parents should spend more money on the child’s education. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: John told his brother “Report yourself to the police and you’ll get lighter penalty”. A. John threatened his brother to report himself to the police. B. John promised his brother a report of himself to the police. C. John persuaded his brother to report himself to the police. D. John asked his brother to give up himself to the police. Question 47: As soon as they arrived at the beach, it started to rain. A. They had no sooner arrived at the beach, it started to rain. B. No sooner had they arrived at the beach than it started to rain. C. They had hardly arrived at the beach, it started to rain. D. It started to rain when arriving at the beach. Question 48: You must clean the wall before you painted it. A. The wall must be cleaned before you paint. B. The wall must clean before you paint it. C. The wall must be clean before you paint it. D. The wall must be cleaned before being painted. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 49: A. decreased B. composed C. knocked D. fixed Question 50: A. comprise B. communicate C. company D. compete PRACTICE TEST 81 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. explained B. disappointed C. prepared D. followed Question 2: A. escape B. especial C. island D. isolate Question 3: A. house B. heat C. honest D. healthy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 4: A. solidarity B. organize C. represent D. academic Question 5: A. successfully B. defensive C. curriculum D. calculation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to complete each of the following questions. Question 6: Who is _______this company? A. under charge of B. in charge of C. in the charge of D. on charge of Question 7: It is a __________. A. polyester sleeping blue bag B. blue sleeping polyester bag C. blue polyester sleeping bag D. sleeping blue polyester bag Question 8: She is a slow student. She seems to be unable to concentrate on anything in __________. A. particular B. particularly C. particularity D. particularize Question 9: Five ________ sources used most often are hydropower, solar, wind, geothermal, and biomass Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. renewed B. renewing C. renew D. renewable Question 10: Remember that things such as language, food and clothing are simply expressions of our cultural __________. A. identity B. characteristics C. personality D. uniqueness Question 11: Jane is going to take extra lessons to ________ what she missed while she was away. A. catch up with B. cut down on C. take up with D. put up with Question 12: I didn’t get home until 11p.m last night. Otherwise, I________ your call. A. returned B. had returned C. would return D. would have returned Question 13: The man and his dogs ________ were buried in the demolished building after the earthquake have just been rescued safely. A. which B. who C. that D. whom Question 14: It is essential that Mary _______ about her responsibilities in the meeting tomorrow. A. must remind B. will be reminded C. will remind D. be reminded Question 15: She listened so attentively that not a word _______. A. she had missed B. she missed C. she didn’t miss D. did she miss Question 16: The more he slept _______ he became. A. more irritable B. most irritable C. the more irritable D. the most irritable Question 17: Each of us must take _______ for our own actions. A. probability B. ability C. possibility D. responsibility Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 18: The number of wild condors, an endangered species of bird, have been increasing steadily because of the work of scientists and environmentalists. A. species of B. have been C. steadily D. because of Question 19: If a person really wants to succeed, they must always work hard. A. person B. really wants C. they D. work hard Question 20: Many meteorite falls go unnoticed because they either happen at night nor they hit the earth in uninhabited areas. A. Many B. because C. at night D. nor they Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 21: "Your parents must be proud of your result at school". - “______”. A. Sorry to hear that B. I am glad you like it.C. Thanks. It's certainly encouraging. D. Of course Question 22: Peter: Do you have a minute please? - Tim: “______”. A. Yes. But you should be brief. B. That’s just fantastic. Thank. C. Sorry, I left my watch at home. D. Well, it is not as good as I think. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 23: Talks on climate change resumed in the German city of Bonn on July 16 to combat global warming. A. focus on B. settle down C. fight against D. sum up Question 24: You must apply yourself to your work more. A. improve B. carry out C. do quickly D. concentrate on Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 25: A mediocre student who gets low grades will have trouble getting into an Ivy League College. A. excellent B. lazy C. average D. moronic Question 26: The shop assistant has to break off the conversation to serve a customer. A. interrupt B. hurry C. continue D. begin Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 27: However old and worn his clothes were, they look clean and of good quality. A. His clothes looked clean and of good quality but they were old and worn. B.His clothes, though old and worn, looked clean and of good quality. C.He was fond of wearing such old and worn clothes because they were of good quality. D.No matter what good quality his clothes had, they looked old and worn. Question 28: I remember doing this assignment before. A. I remembered I had already done this assignment. B. I try to remember to do this assignment. C. I don’t forget to do this assignment. D. I remember that I have done this assignment before. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 29: Most of the classmates couldn't come. He invited them to the birthday party. A. Most of the classmates he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. B. Most of the classmates he was invited to the birthday party couldn't come. C. Most of the classmates that he invited them to the birthday party couldn't come. D. Most of the classmates which he invited to the birthday party couldn't come. Question 30: Sue lives in a house. The house is opposite my house. A. Sue lives in a house where is opposite my house. B. Sue lives in a house which is opposite my house. C. Sue lives in a house who is opposite my house. D. Sue lives in a house and which is opposite my house. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Few people now realize the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (31) ______ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than ever before, the Earth is at (32) ______ from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. According to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more severe and causing sea levels all around the world to rise. Environmental groups are putting pressure on governments to take action to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide which is given (33) ______ by factories and power plants, thus attacking the problems at its source. They are in (34) ______ of more money being spent on research into solar, wind and wave energy devices, which could then replace existing power (35) ______. Some scientists, however, believe that even if we stopped releasing carbon dioxide and other gases into the atmosphere tomorrow, we would have to wait several hundred years to notice the results. Global warming, it seems, is to stay. Question 31: A. give B. put C. take D. has Question 32: A. danger B. harm C. risk D. threat Question 33: A. off B. up C. over D. away Question 34: A. request B. suggestion C. belief D. favor Question 35: A. houses B. dumps C. stations D. generation Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Each person has different learning preferences and styles that benefit them. Some may find they have a dominant learning style. Others prefer different learning styles in different circ*mstances. There is no right or wrong answer to which learning style is best for you - or mix of learning styles. However, by discovering and better understanding your own learning styles, you can employ techniques that will improve the rate and quality of your learning. If you prefer lessons that employ images to teach, you are a visual learner. Visual learners retain information better when it is presented in pictures, videos, graphs and books. They frequently draw pictures or develop diagrams when trying to comprehend a subject or memorize rote information. If you are a visual learner, use pictures, images, color, diagrams and other visual media in your note taking, test preparation and studying. Whenever possible, use pictures instead of text. Try to develop diagrams to comprehend concepts and storyboards to remember important sequences and relationships. Aural (auditory) learners retain information better when it’s presented in lecture format, via speeches, audio recordings, and other forms of verb communication. While a visual learner would prefer to read a book or watch a video, auditory learners would prefer to attend a lecture or listen to a book on tap. Aural learners are also big on sound and music. They can typically sing, play an instrument and identify different sounds. If you are an aural learner, integrate auditory media, listening techniques, sound, rhyme, or even music in your learning and studying. You may also consider using background music and sounds to help you with visualization of processes and systems. For example, if you’re practicing fight procedures, you may consider playing a recording of an aircraft in the background as you study. Replacing the lyrics of a favorite song with information you are learning is a very powerful way to memorize large amounts of information for aural learning. Use this technique and you will never forget the information again Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Features and techniques of two learning styles. B. Visual and aural learners’ problems and solutions. C. Why and how to understand your learning styles. D. What and how to use your learning techniques. Question 37: By discovering and better understanding your own learning styles, you can improve _______. A. Your learning quality and quantity. B. Your learning rate. C. Your learning styles. D. Your learning quality and speed. Question 38: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to_______. A. visual learners B. pictures C. videos D. graphs Question 39: According to the passage, one benefit of diagrams is _______. A. to understand concepts. B. to remember sequences. C. to understand story boards. D. to use pictures not texts. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 40: All of the following statements are TRUE about visual learners EXCEPT _______. A. They employ images to teach. B. They remember graphs well. C. They prefer pictures to texts. D. They use story boards for relationships. Question 41: According to the passage, the benefit of listening to music while learning and studying is that it _______. A. is a hobby or an interest B. attracts your attention C. makes you feel relaxed D. helps you visualize processes and systems Question 42: The author suggests that to remember lessons, aural learners can _______. . A. forget melody B. learn by heart lyrics C. sing along D. write songs with your favorite lyrics and information you’re learning. Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that a person’s learning style _______. A. is completely different from others’. B. can never be best for them. C. determines learning quality. D. has its effective technique. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Ranked as the number one beverage consumed worldwide, tea takes the lead over coffee in both popularity and production with 5 million metric tons of tea produced annually. Although much of this tea is consumed in Asian, European and African countries, the United States drinks its fair share. According to estimates by the Tea Council of the United States, tea is enjoyed by no less than half of the U.S population on any given day. Black tea or green tea – iced, spiced or instant – tea drinking has spurred a billion-dollar with major tea producer in Africa and South America and throughout Asia. Tea is made from the leaves from an evergreen plant, Camellia saneness, which grows tall and lush in tropical region. On tea plantation, the plant is kept trimmed to approximately four feet high and as new buds called flush appear; they are plucked off by hand. Even in today’s world of modern agricultural machinery, hand harvesting continues to be the preferred method. Ideally, only the top two leaves and a bud should be picked. This new growth produces the highest quality tea. After being harvested, tea leaves are laid out on long drying racks, called withering racks, for 18 to 20 hours. During this process, the tea softens and become limp. Next, dependent on the type of tea being product, the leaves may be crushed or chopped to release flavor, and then fermented under controlled condition of heat and humidity. For green tea, the whole leaves are often steamed to retain their green color, and the fermentation process is skipped. Producing black teas requires fermentation during which the tea leaves begin darken. After fermentation, black tea is dried in vats to produce its rich brown or black color. No one knows when or how tea became popular, but legend has it that tea as a beverage was discovered in 2737 B.C. by Emperor Shen Nung of China when leaves from camellia dropped into his drinking water as it was boiling over a fire. As the story goes, Emperor Shen Nung drank the resulting liquid and proclaimed that the drink to be most nourishing and refreshing. Though this account cannot be documented, it is thought that tea drinking probably originated in China and spread to other parts of Asia, then Europe, and ultimately to America colonies around 1650. With about half the caffeine content of coffee, tea is often chosen by those who want to reduce, but not necessarily eliminate their caffeine intake. Some people find that tea is less acidic than coffee and therefore easier on the stomach. Others have become interested in tea drinking since the National Cancer Institute publishes its finding on the antioxidant properties of tea. But whether tea is enjoyed for it perceived health benefit, its flavor, or as a social drink, teacups continue to be filled daily with the world’ most popular beverage. Question 44: According to the passage, what is implied about tea harvesting? A. It is totaling done with the assistance of modern agricultural machinery B. It is longer done in China. C. The method has remained nearly the same for a long time. D. The method involves trimming the uppermost branches of the plant. Question 45: What does the word “they” in paragraph 2 refer to? A. tea pickers B. new buds C. evergreen plants D. tropical regions Question 46: Which of the following is NOT true about the tea production process? A. Black tea develops its dark color during fermentation and final drying. B. Green tea requires a long fermentation process. C. Green tea is often steamed to keep its color. D. Black tea goes through two phases during production. Question 47: According to the passage, what is TRUE about origin of tea drinking? A. It began during the Shen Nung Dynasty. B. It may begin some time around 1950. C. It is unknown when tea first became popular. D. It was originally produced from Camilla plants in Europe. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 48: The word “eliminate” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following words? A. decrease B. increase C. reduce D. remove Question 49: According to the passage, why someone would choose to drink tea instead of coffee? A. Because it’s easier to digest than coffee. B. Because it has higher nutritional content than coffee. C. Because it helps prevent heart attacks. D. Because it has more caffeine than coffee does. Question 50: What best describes the topic of the passage? A. Tea consumption and production. B. The two most popular types of tea. C. The benefits of tea consumption worldwide. D. How tea is produced and brewed THE END! PRACTICE TEST 82 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of test we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, it isn't a (1) ______that some people who are very academically successful don't have any common sense? Intelligence is the speed (2) ______which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing (3) ______computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present, tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person's IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are (4)______ by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976, it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide, largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in (5) ______to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2 percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed enough time. But that's the problem, the whole point of the test is that they're against the clock. Question 1: A. case B. fact C. circ*mstance D. truth Question 2: A. on B. to C. in D. at Question 3: A. advanced B. forward C. ahead D. upper Question 4: A. appointed B. commanded C. run D. steered Question 5: A. concerned B. relation C. regard D. association Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 6: The meeting was put off because of pressure of time. A. There was not enough time to hold the meeting. B. The meeting was planned to start late because of time pressure. C. The meeting started earlier because people wanted to leave early. D. The meeting lasted much longer than usual. Question 7: It was not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago. A. Was it not only cold but it also snowed a few days ago.B. It was not only cold but did it also snow a few days ago. C. Not only it was cold but did it also snow a few days ago. D. Not only was it cold but it also snowed a few days ago. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The economic expansion prompted by the Second World War triggered a spectacular population boom in the West. Of course, the region was no stranger to population booms. Throughout much of its history, western settlement had been characterized by spurts, rather than by a pattern of gradual and steady population growth, beginning with the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's. The decade after the First World War - the 1920's - witnessed another major surge of people pouring into the West, particularly into urban areas. But the economic depression of the 1930's brought this expansion to a halt; some of the more sparsely settled parts of the region actually lost population as migrants sought work in more heavily industrialized areas. By 1941 when the United States entered the Second World War and began to mobilize, new job opportunities were created in the western part of the nation. If the expansion of industries, such as shipbuilding and aircraft manufacturing, was most striking on the pacific coast, it also affected interior cities like Denver, Phoenix, and Salt Lake City. Equally dramatic were the effects of the establishment of aluminum plants in Oregon and Washington and the burgeoning steel industry in Utah and California. The flow of people into these areas provided an enormous impetus to the expansion of the service industries - banks, health care services and schools. Although strained to the limit by the influx of newcomers, western communities welcomed the vast reservoir of new job opportunities. At the same time, the unprecedented expansion of government installations in the West, such as military bases, created thousands of new civilian openings. As land had served as a magnet for western migrants in the late nineteenth century, so wartime mobilization set in motion another major expansion of population. Indeed, it could be said that the entire western United States became a giant boomtown during the Second World War. This was especially true of California. Of Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose the more than eight million people who moved into the West in the decade after 1940, almost one-half went to the Pacific coast. In fact, between 1940 and 1950, California's population surged by more than three million people. Question 8: What is the main point of the passage? A. California dominated the economic growth of the West during the Second World War. B. Industrial growth during the 1940's attracted large numbers of people to the West. C. The military drew people away from civilian jobs during the 1940's. D. The West experienced gradual and steady economic growth from 1900 to 1940. Question 9: The word "triggered" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to______. A. was connected to B. generated C. interfered with D. illuminated Question 10: Why does the author mention “the gold and silver rushes of the 1850's and 1860's” in the first paragraph? A. As causes of gradual population growth B. As contrasts to late patterns of population C. As illustrations of a market economy. D. As examples of western population booms. Question 11: According to the passage, the depression of the 1930's caused which of the following? A. A lack of population growth in the West. B. The building of new suburbs. C. A creation of more job opportunities. D. A growth in immigration from abroad. Question 12: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to______. A. expansion B. Denver C. manufacturing D. the Pacific coast Question 13: The passage suggests that industrialization in the West led to all of the following EXCEPT ______. A. An increase in school construction. B. Improved access to doctors. C. An increase in the number of banks. D. A reduction in the price of land. Question 14: It can be inferred from the passage that the principal cause of California’s population surge between 1940 and 1950 was ______. A. the increased availability of land. B. people’s desire to live in a warm, coastal climate. C. the industrial mobilization necessitated by the Second World War. D. overcrowding in urban areas in other regions of the United States. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 15: A. autumn B. summer C. public D. struggle. Question 16: A. washed B. needed C. stopped D. linked. Question 17: A. succeed B. accept C. account D. accident. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following question. Question 18: ______ I had learnt English when I was at high school. A. If only B. Even if C. Unless D. If Question 19: I______ a terrible accident while I______ on the beach. A. saw / was walking B. have seen / were walking C. see / am walking D. was seeing / walked Question 20: By the time you receive this letter, I______ for the USA. A. am leaving B. will leave C. will have left D. have left Question 21: Last Saturday was______ that we took a drive in the country. A. so beautuful day B. such a beautiful day C. so a beautiful day D. such beautiful day Question 22: If more chemicals are released into the water, plants and animals______. A. would be die B. would die C. will be killed D. will kill Question 23: ______ parents of Paul Thomas claimed that he was at______ home at the time of______ robbery. A. Ø – Ø – the B. The – the – the C. Ø – Ø - a D. The – Ø – the Question 24: ______ irritating they are, you shouldn't lose your temper with your children. A. Because of B. No matter C. Despite D. However Question 25: In many families, the woman now is the principal______. A. bread-winner B. breadbasket C. bread earner D. winner Question 26: The team were eager to make______ the loss of the previous match. A. away with B. off with C. up for D. up with Question 27: Peter tried his best and passed the driving test at the first______. A. try B. attempt C. doing D. aim Question 28: He has not been offered the job because he cannot meet the______ of the company. A. requirements B. applicants C. information D. education Question 29: The authorities are determined to take tougher______ to reduce crime. A. measures B. situations C. interests D. requirements Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 30: A. commercial B. impolite C. regretful D. successful Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 31: A. conservation B. compulsory C. optimistic D. independent Mark the letter A, B, C or D in your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 32: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent severe earthquake. A. homeless people B. have increased C. due to D. severe Question 33: In the end of the story, Cinderella and the prince get married and live happily together. A. In the end B. the prince C. get married D. happily Question 34: Rattan, a close relative of bamboo, is often used to make tables, chairs, and other furnitures. A. a close B. is often C. to make D. other furnitures Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 35: -Jane: “Thank you for your lovely evening”. -Barbara: “______” A. Thanks! B. Cheer! C. Have a good day. D. You’re welcome Question 36: -Ann: “Make yourself at home”. -John: “______”. A. Thanks! Same to you. B. That’s very kind of you. Thank you. C. Not at all. Don’t mention it. D. Yes, Can I help you? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 37: Roget's Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas they express rather than by alphabetical order. A. restricted B. as well as C. unless D. instead of Question 38: With the dawn of space exploration, the notion that atmospheric conditions on Earth may be unique in the solar system was strengthened. A. out come B. continuation C. beginning D. expansion Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 39: Population growth rates vary among regions and even among countries within the same region. A. restrain B. stay unchanged C. remain unstable D. fluctuate Question 40: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check. A. similar B. different C. fake D. genuine Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 41: Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world. Wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors. A. Wild dogs whose ancestors are the same as domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes are found in different parts of the world. B. Wild dogs are found in different parts of the world where they share ancestors with wild dogs, domestic dogs, wolves, jackals and foxes. C. Wild dogs, domestic dogs that are found in different parts of the world and also wolves, jackals and foxes have the same ancestors. D. In different parts of the world, wild dogs and domestic dogs share ancestors with wolves, jackals and foxes. Question 42: Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways. This is due to individual life experience and personality. A. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, according to individual life experience and personality. B. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various ways, owing to individual life experience and personality. C. Vietnamese culture through individual life experience and personality is dynamic and expressed in various ways. D. Vietnamese culture is dynamic and expressed in various in individual life experience and personality. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Development of Refrigeration Cold storage, or refrigeration, is keeping food at temperatures between 32 and 45 degrees F in order to delay the growth of microorganisms - bacteria, molds, and yeast - that cause food to spoil. Refrigeration produces few changes in food, so meats, fish, eggs, milk, fruits, and vegetables keep their original flavor, color, and nutrition. Before artificial refrigeration was invented, people stored perishable food with ice or snow to lengthen its storage time. Preserving food by keeping it in an ice-filled pit is a 4,000-year-old art. Cold storage areas were built in Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose basem*nts, cellars, or caves, lined with wood or straw, and packed with ice. The ice was transported from mountains, or harvested from local lakes or rivers, and delivered in large blocks to homes and businesses. Artificial refrigeration is the process of removing heat from a substance, container, or enclosed area, to lower its temperature. The heat is moved from the inside of the container to the outside. A refrigerator uses the evaporation of a volatile liquid, or refrigerant, to absorb heat. In most types of refrigerators, the refrigerant is compressed, pumped through a pipe, and allowed to vaporize. As the liquid turns to vapor, it loses heat and gets colder because the molecules of vapor use energy to leave the liquid. The molecules left behind have less energy and so the liquid becomes colder. Thus, the air inside the refrigerator is chilled. Scientists and inventors from around the world developed artificial refrigeration during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. William Cullen demonstrated artificial refrigeration in Scotland in 1748, when he let ethyl ether boil into a partial vacuum. In 1805, American inventor Oliver Evans designed the first refrigeration machine that used vapor instead of liquid. In 1842, physician John Gorrie used Evans's design to create an air-cooling apparatus to treat yellow-fever patients in a Florida hospital. Gorrie later left his medical practice and experimented with ice making, and in 1851 he was granted the first U.S. patent for mechanical refrigeration. In the same year, an Australian printer, James Harrison, built an ether refrigerator after noticing that when he cleaned his type with ether it became very cold as the ether evaporated. Five years later, Harrison introduced vapor-compression refrigeration to the brewing and meatpacking industries. Brewing was the first industry in the United States to use mechanical refrigeration extensively, and in the 1870s, commercial refrigeration was primarily directed at breweries. German-born Adolphus Busch was the first to use artificial refrigeration at his brewery in St. Louis. Before refrigeration, brewers stored their beer in caves, and production was constrained by the amount of available cave space. Brewing was strictly a local business since beer was highly perishable and shipping it any distance would result in spoilage. Busch solved the storage problem with the commercial vapor- compression refrigerator. He solved the shipping problem with the newly invented refrigerated railcar, which was insulated with ice bunkers in each end. Air came in on the top, passed through the bunkers, and circulated through the car by gravity. In solving Busch's spoilage and storage problems, refrigeration also revolutionized an entire industry. By 1891, nearly every brewery was equipped with mechanical refrigerating machines. The refrigerators of today rely on the same basic principle of cooling caused by the rapid evaporation and expansion of gases. Until 1929, refrigerators used toxic gases - ammonia, methyl chloride, and sulfur dioxide - as refrigerants. After those gases accidentally killed several people, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) became the standard refrigerant. However, they were found to be harmful to the earth's ozone layer, so refrigerators now use a refrigerant called HFC 134a, which is less harmful to the ozone. Question 43: What is the main reason that people developed methods of refrigeration? A. They wanted to improve the flavor and nutritional value of food. B. They needed to slow the natural processes that cause food to spoil. C. They needed to use for the ice that formed on lakes and rivers. D. They wanted to expand the production of certain industries. Question 44: The word “perishable” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. capable of spoiling B. uncooked C. of animal origin D. highly nutritious Question 45: What can be inferred from paragraph 1 about cold storage before the invention of artificial refrigeration? A. It kept food cold for only about a week. B. It was dependent on a source of ice or snow. C. It required a container made of mental or wood. D. It was not a safe method of preserving meat. Question 46: Artificial refrigeration involves all of the following processes EXCEPT______. A. the pumping of water vapor through a pipe. B. the rapid expansion of certain gases. C. the evaporation of a volatile liquid. D. the transfer of heat from one place to another. Question 47: According to the passage, who was the first person to use artificial refrigeration for a practical purpose?A. William Cullen B. Oliver Evans C. John Gorrie D. Adolphus Busch Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to______. A. printer B. refrigerator C. type D. ether Question 49: The word “constrained” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to______. A. restricted B. spoiled C. improved D. alternated Question 50: According to the passage, the first refrigerated railcar used what material as a cooling agent? A. ether B. ice C. ammonia D. CFCs THE END!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose PRACTICE TEST 83 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. documentary B. occurrence C. competition D. individual Question 2:A. relationship B. arrangement C. challenging D. eliminate Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. machine B. suggestion C. shouting D. emotion Question 4:A. broadened B. used to C. cried D. smiled Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: It would be both noticed and appreciating if you could finish the work before you leave A. both B. the work C. leave D. appreciating Question 6: A calorie is the quantity of heat required to rise on gallon of water on degree centigrade at one atmospheric pressure A. to rise B. A calorie C. quantity D. required Question 7: Harry, alike his colleagues, is trying hard to finish hart work early A. alike B. hard C. is trying D. early Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Coffee is the second most valuable _____ after oil A. ware B. production C. producing D. commodity Question 9: We _____ on the beach now if we hadn’t missed the plane A. might have lain B. would lie C. could be lying D. would have lain Question 10: The noise from the nearby factory kept me _____ A. awake B. awakened C. waking D. woken Question 11: Make sure you ____ us a visit when you are in town again A. pay B. have C. give D. do Question 12: I used to run a mile before breakfast but now I am ____ A. not used to it B. no longer practice it C. out of practice D. out of the habit Question 13: The government is determined to ____ terrorism A. put the stop to B. put stop to C. put stops to D. put a stop to Question 14: Out ___ for a walk after she finished doing her homework A. did Mary go B. Mary went C. Mary did go D. went Mary Question 15: Lucia was surprised when her guests ____ late for the party A. came up B. turned up C. looked up D. put up Question 16: Liquid milk is usually pasteurized in order to kill bacteria for a longer ____ A. expectancy B. production C. living D. shelf life Question 17: The majority of people accept that modern drugs are the most effective way to cure a(n) ______ A. sicken B. illness C. symptom D. treatment Question 18: ____ the price is high, we can’t afford to buy a new car A. Now that B. Although C. Whereas D. As long as Question 19: You have gone to the doctor’s to have a check-u. You ____. You just had your check-up last week A. didn’t need to go B. needn’t have gone C. needn’t go D. don’t need to go Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions. Question 20: “Your dress is lovely. I like it” “______” A. Oh, it’s just an old dress B. Thanks anyway. I think it makes me look older C. You must be kidding. I think it’s terrible D. Thank you. That’s a nice compliment Question 21: “Happy Christmas” “______” A. The same to you! B. Happy Christmas! C. You are the same! D. Same for you! Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: The sailor is suffering from a deficiency of Vitamin C A. lack B. short C. shortage D. lacking Question 23: The nurse told her that she would have to wait for a few days for the outcome of the medical check-up A. putting B. payment C. result D. coming Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: The policemen broke up the fight between the two teenagers A. started B. stopped off C. called off D. canceled Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 25: He has a good memory to retain facts easily A. remember B. forget C. understand D. know Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions In the explosion of the linguistic life cycle, it is apparent that it is much more difficult to learn a second language in adulthood than a first language in childhood. Most adults never completely master a foreign language, especially in Phonology – hence the ubiquitous foreign accent. Their development often “fossilizes” into permanent error patterns that no teaching or correction can undo. Of course, there are great individual differences, which depend on effort, attitudes, amount of exposure, quality of teaching and plain talent, but there seems to be a cap for the best adults in the best circ*mstances Many explanations have been advanced for children’s superiority; they exploit Motherese (the simplified, repetitive conversation between parents and children), make errors unself-consciously, are more motivated to communicate, like to conform, are not set in their ways, and have not first language to interfere. But some of these accounts are unlikely, based on what is known about how language acquisition works. Recent evidence is calling these social and motivation explanations into doubt. Holding every other factor constant, a key factor stands out: sheer age Systematic evidence comes from the psychologist Elissa Newport and her colleagues. They tested Korean and Chinese – born students at the University of Illinois who had spent a least ten years in the United States. The immigrants were give a list of 276 simple English sentences, half of them containing some grammatical error. The immigrants who came to the United States between the age of 3 and 7 performed identically to American – born students. Those who arrived between ages 8 and 15 did worse the latter they arrived, and those who arrived between 17 and 39 did the worst of all, and showed huge variability unrelated to their age of arrival Question 26: The passage mainly discussed A. adult differences in learning a foreign language B. children’s ability to learn a language C. the age factor in learning languages fast D. research into language acquisition Question 27: From the passage, it can be inferred that “Phonology” is the study of ____ A. the grammar of language B. the rules of a language C the vocabulary of a language D. the sound system of a language Question 28: The word “cap” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____ A. prize B. limit C. covering D. level Question 29: According to the passage, young children learn languages quickly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT __________ A. they make many mistakes B. they want to talk C. their approach is flexible D. they frequently repeat words Question 30: The word “unrelated” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to ___ A. unconnected B. unfamiliar C. Unclassified D. unidentified Question 31: In the experiment in the passage, the Psychologists discovered _____ A. most students had lived in the U.S for more that 10 years B. older students were unable to learn English C. young students learned English best D. students who arrived late were worst of all Question 32: The word “who” in paragraph 3 refers to _____ A. Elissa Newport B. Koreans C. students D. colleagues Question 33: According to the passage, what was the purpose of examining a sample number of immigrants? A. To compare different age groups B. To detect differences in nationalities C. To confirm different language characteristics D. To measure the use of grammar Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions The time when human crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished stone implements and bows and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been domesticated When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains dominated by three types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today’s elephants mainly by their thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds of thousands of years before their followers. The woody mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth in middle North America, and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these elephants, as shown by numerous spear points found with mammoth remains Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively sudden and widespread extinction of elephants. In the New World, both mammoths and mastodons disappeared. In the Old World, only Indian and African elephants survived. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected with their extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still widely settled and not very numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an extent Question 34: With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned? A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths C. The prehistory of humans D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World Question 35: The word “implements” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____ A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings Question 36: The phrase “these early migrants” in paragraph 2 refers to ____ A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons Question 37: Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth? A. Alaska B. the central portion of North America C. the southern part of North America D. South America Question 38: It can be inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they ____ A. had previously hunted mammoths in Siberia B. had never seen mammoth before C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths Question 39: Which of the following could be best substitute for the word “remains” in paragraph 2? A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points Question 40: The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoth A. Humans hunted them to extinction B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks INTELLIGENCE TEST Schools exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of tests we take. They find out how much knowledge we have (41) ____. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very successful academically don’t have any (42)____ sense? Intelligence is the speed at which we can understand and (43)____ to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientists are now preparing advanced computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IQ tests are run by Mensa, an organization that was founded in England in 1946. By 1976 it had 1300 members in Britain. Today there are 44000 in Britain and 100000 worldwide, largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in relation to an average score of 100, and those score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This (44)___ at 2% of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take the tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if (45)____ enough time. But that’s the problems – the whole point of the tests is that they’re against the clock Question 41: A. fetched B. gained C. attached D. caught Question 42: A. natural B. bright C. sharp D. common Question 43: A. accord B. react C. answer D. alter Question 44:A. adds up B. turns to C. comes up D. works out Question 45: A. allowed B. spared C. let D. provided Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: She gets up early to prepare breakfast so that her children can come to school on time. A. Despite her getting up early to prepare breakfast, her children cannot come to school on time. B. Because she wanted her children to come to school on time, she gets up early to prepare breakfast. C. If she does not get up early to prepare breakfast, her children will not come to school on time. D. Unless she gets up early to prepare breakfast, her children will not come to school on. Question 47: The last time I went to the museum was a year ago. A. I have not been to the museum for a year. B. A year ago, I often went to the museum. C. My going to the museum lasted a year. D. At last I went to the museum after a year. Question 48: I think you should stop smoking. A. If I am you, I will stop smoking. B. If I had been you, I would stop smoking. C. If I were you, I would stop smoking. D. If I were you, I will stop smoking. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill. B. Because of his illness, John should have been here yesterday. C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here. D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here. Question 50: It doesn’t make any difference if it rain. They will still go. A. The difference is their going in the rain . B. Whether it rains or not, they will still go. C. But for the rain, they would have gone. D. But for the rain, we would not have gone. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 84 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. easy B. sea C. learn D. eat Question 2. A. park B. yard C. card D. carry Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. community B. particular C. mathematics D. authority Question 4. A. explanation B. experiment C. accomplishment D. discovery Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful. A B C D Question 6. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to A B assure a successful cure. C D Question 7. Paris has been well-known about its famous monuments, beautiful music, and A B C wonderful restaurants for over 100 years. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. I don’t agree with ____________ very young and pretty criminals A. committing B. enforcing C. imprisoning D. offending Question 9. What beautiful eyes____________! A. does she have B. she has C. has she D. she doesn't have Question 10. ____________long, I'm sure you will be speaking English ____________ a native speaker. A. After/ like B. Before/ like C. After/ for D. Before/ for Question 11. He's left his book at home; he's always so____________. A. forgetful B. forgettable C. forgotten D. forgetting Question 12. We are going to build a fence around the field with____________to breeding sheep and cattle A. a goal B. an outlook C. a reason D. a view Question 13. The meeting didn’t____________ until late. A. end up B. break up C. come about D. fall through Question 14. Fiona is very angry ____________ her boss’s decision to sack several members of staff. A. against B. by C. for D. about Question 15. Media reports on the outcome of military intervention often _______the true facts. A. divert B. detract C. depose D. distort Question 16. He hurried____________ he wouldn't be late for class. A. since B. as if C. unless D. so that Question 17. When his parents are away, his oldest brother ____________. A. knocks it off B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. is in the same boat Question 18. If he had been more careful, he _______________. A. won’t fall B. wouldn’t fall C. wouldn’t have fallen D. would haven’t fallen Question 19. We should participate in the movements______________ the natural environment. A. organizing to conserve B. organized conserving C. which organize to conserve D. organized to conserve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Jenny: “Thank you very much for your donation, Mr. Robinson.” Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose - Mr. Robinson: “________________________” A. You can say that again. B. I see. C. You are right. D. Delighted I was able to help. Question 21. John: “Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.” - Jane: “____________” A. Well, another time. B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too.C. OK, see you. D. That's nice. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. I am glad I was able to be there for my friend when her mom died.. A. to offer support in time of need for B. to cry with C. to travel with D. to visit Question 23. The sign indicates the correct direction to the store. A. looks B. shows C. says D. needs Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. It is relatively easy to identify the symptoms of the peculiar disease. A. evidently B. absolutely C. comparatively D. obviously Question 25. When you consider all the advantages you've gained I think you'll admit you had a good run for your money. A. a lot of loss from your money B. a lot of benefits from your money C. a lot of advantages from your money D. a lot of failures in making your money Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. I whispered as I didn’t want anybody to hear our conversation. A. So as not to hear our conversation I whispered. B. Since nobody wanted to hear our conversation I whispered. C. Because I whispered, nobody heard our conversation. D. I lowered my voice in order that our conversation couldn’t be heard. Question 27. Though he tried hard, he didn’t succeed. A. However he tried hard, he didn’t succeed. B. However hard he tried, he didn’t succeed. C. However he didn’t succeed hard, he tried hard. D. However he tried hard, but he didn’t succeed. Question 28. “If you keep eating so much fat, you’ll gain weight.” said his mother. A. His mother suggested him gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat. B. His mother warned him that he would gain weight if he kept eating so much fat. C. His mother threatened him to gain weight if he kept eating so much fat D. His mother complained about his gaining weight if he kept eating so much fat. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. He was suspected to have stolen credit cards. The police have investigated him for days. A. He has been investigated for days, suspected to have stolen credit cards. B. Suspecting to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days. C. Having suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days. D. Suspected to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days. Question 30. Crazianna is a big country. Unfortunately, it has never received respect from its neighbours. A. Though Crazianna is a big country, it has never received respect from its neighbours. B. Crazianna has never received respect from its neighbours because it is a big country. C. It is Crazianna, a big country, that has never received respect from its neighbours. D. Crazianna is such a big country that it has never received respect from its neighbours. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. How men first learnt to (31) __________words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a mystery. All we really know is that men, unlike animals, (32) __________invented certain sounds to express thoughts and feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (33) __________certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be written down. These sounds, whetherspoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that (34) __________ powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary style. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can convey his meaning in words which sing like music, and which by their position and association can (35) __________ men to tears. We should, therefore, learn to choose our words carefully, or they will make our speech silly and vulgar. Question 31. A. invent B. create C. make D. discover Question 32. A. whatever B. however C. somewhat D. somehow Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 33. A. at B. upon C. for D. in Question 34. A. interest B. appeal C. attract D. lure Question 35. A. take B. send C. break D. move Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. THE DIGITAL DIVIDE Information technology is influencing the way many of us live and work today. We use the Internet to look and apply for jobs, shop, conduct research, make airline reservations, and explore areas of interest. We use e-mail and the Internet to communicate instantaneously with friends and business associates around the world. Computers are commonplace in homes and the workplace. Although the number of Internet users is growing exponentially each year, most of the world’s population does not have access to computers or the Internet. Only 6 percent of the population in developing countries are connected to telephones. Although more than 94 percent of U.S. households have a telephone, only 42 percent have personal computers at home and 26 percent have Internet access. The lack of what most of us would consider a basic communications necessity –the telephone –does not occur just in developing nations. On some Native American reservations only 60 percent of the residents have a telephone. The move to wireless connections may eliminate the need for telephone lines, but it does not remove the barrier to equipment costs. Who has Internet access? Fifty percent of the children in urban households with an income over $75,000 have Internet access, compared with 2 percent of the children in low-income, rural households. Nearly half of college-educated people have Internet access, compared to 6 percent of those with only some high school education. Forty percent of households with two parents have access; 15 percent of female, single-parent households do. Thirty percent of white households, 11 percent of black households, and 13 percent of Hispanic households have access. Teens and children are the two fastest-growing segments of Internet users. The digital divide between the populations who have access to the Internet and information technology tools is based on income, race, education, household type, and geographic location. Only 16 percent of the rural poor, rural and central city minorities, young householders, and single parent female households are connected.. Another problem that exacerbates these disparities is that African-Americans, Hispanics, and Native Americans hold few of the jobs in information technology. Women hold about 20 percent of these jobs and are receiving fewer than 30 percent of the computer science degrees. The result is that women and members of the most oppressed ethnic groups are not eligible for the jobs with the highest salaries at graduation. Baccalaureate candidates with degrees in computer science were offered the highest salaries of all new college graduates in 1998 at $44,949. Do similar disparities exist in schools? More than 90 percent of all schools in the country are wired with at least one Internet connection. The number of classrooms with Internet connections differs by the income level of students. Using the percentage of students who are eligible for free lunches at a school to determine income level, we see that nearly twice as many of the schools with more affluent students have wired classrooms as those with high concentrations of low-income students. Access to computers and the Internet will be important in reducing disparities between groups. It will require greater equality across diverse groups whose members develop knowledge and skills in computer and information technologies. If computers and the Internet are to be used to promote equality, they will have to become accessible to populations that cannot currently afford the equipment which needs to be updated every three years or so. However, access alone is not enough. Students will have to be interacting with the technology in authentic settings. As technology becomes a tool for learning in almost all courses taken by students, it will be seen as a means to an end rather than an end in itself. If it is used in culturally relevant ways, all students can benefit from its power. Question 36. Why does the author mention the telephone in paragraph 2? A. To contrast the absence of telephone usage with that of Internet usage B. To describe the development of communications from telephone to Internet C. To demonstrate that even technology like the telephone is not available to all D. To argue that basic telephone service is a first step to using the Internet Question 37. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the statement “Although the number ............. or the Internet.” in the paragraph 2? A. The number of computers that can make the Internet available to most of the people in the world is not increasing fast enough. B. The Internet is available to most of the people in the world, even though they don't have their own computer terminals. C. Most of the people in the world use the Internet now because the number of computers has been increasing every year. D. The number of people who use computers and the Internet is increasing every year, but most people in the world still do not have connections. Question 38. Based on information in paragraph 3, which of the following best explains the term "digital divide?" Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. The disparity in the opportunity to use the Internet B. Differences in socioeconomic levels among Internet users C. The number of Internet users in developing nations D. Segments of the population with Internet access Question 39. Why does the author give details about the percentages of Internet users in paragraph 3? A. To argue for more Internet connections at all levels of society B. To suggest that improvements in Internet access are beginning to take place C. To prove that there are differences in opportunities among social groups D. To explain why many people have Internet connections now Question 40. According to paragraph 4, why are fewer women and minorities employed in the field of computer technology? A. They do not have an interest in technology.B. They prefer training for jobs with higher salaries. C. They are not admitted to the degree programs.D. They do not possess the educational qualifications. Question 41. The word “concentrations” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. confidence B. protections C. numbers D. support Question 42. What can be inferred from paragraph 6 about Internet access? A. The cost of replacing equipment is a problem. B. Technology will be more helpful in three years. C. Better computers need to be designed. D. Schools should provide newer computers for students. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Cooperation is the common endeavor of two or more people to perform a task or reach a jointly cherished goal. Like competition and conflict, there are different forms of cooperation, based on group organization and attitudes. In the first form, known as primary cooperation, group and individual fuse. The group contains nearly all of each individual’s life. The rewards of the group’s work are shared with each member. There is an interlocking identity of individual, group and task performed. Means and goals become one, for cooperation itself is valued. While primary cooperation is most often characteristic of preliterature societies, secondary cooperation is characteristic of many modern societies. In secondary cooperation, individuals devote only part of their lives to the group. Cooperation itself is not a value. Most members of the group feel loyalty, but the welfare of the group is not the first consideration. Members perform tasks so that they can separately enjoy the fruits of their cooperation in the form of salary, prestige, or power. Business offices and professional athletic teams are examples of secondary cooperation. In the third type, called tertiary cooperation or accommodation, latent conflict underlies the shared work. The attitudes of the cooperating parties are purely opportunistic: the organization is loose and fragile. Accommodation involves common means to achieve antagonistic goals: it breaks down when the common means cease to aid each party in reaching its goals. This is not, strictly speaking, cooperation at all, and hence the somewhat contradictory term antagonistic cooperation is sometimes used for this relationship. Question 43. What is the author’s main purpose in the first paragraph of the passage? A. To offer a brief definition of cooperation B. To explain how cooperation differs from competition and conflict C. To urge readers to cooperate more often D. To show the importance of group organization and attitudes Question 44. The word cherished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______ A. agreed on B. prized C. defined D. set up Question 45. Which of the following statements about primary cooperation is supported by information in the passage? A. It is an ideal that can never be achieved B. It was confined to prehistoric times C. It is usually the first stage of cooperation achieved by a group of individuals attempting to cooperate D. It is most commonly seen among people who have not yet developed reading and writing skills Question 46. According to the passage, why do people join groups that practice secondary cooperation? A. To get rewards for themselves B. To defeat a common enemy C. To experience the satisfaction of cooperation D. To associate with people who have similar backgrounds Question 47. Which of the following is an example of the third form of cooperation as it is defined in the fourth paragraph? A. Members of a farming community share work and the food that they grow B. Two rival political parties temporarily work together to defeat a third party C. Students form a study group so that all of them can improve their grades D. A new business attempts to take customers away from an established company Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 48. Which of the following is NOT given as a name for the third type of cooperation? A. Accommodation B. Latent conflict C. Tertiary cooperation D. Antagonistic cooperation Question 49. The word fragile in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. poorly planned B. involuntary C. inefficient D. easily broken Question 50. Which of the following best describes the overall organization of the passage? A. The author presents the points of view of three experts on the same topic B. The author compares and contrasts two types of human relations C. The author describes a concept by analyzing its three forms D. The author provides a number of concrete examples and then draws a conclusion THE END! PRACTICE TEST 85 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. applicant B. vacant C. apply D. passion Question 2. A. life B. tight C. child D. children Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. discover B. difficult C. invention D. important Question 4. A. acceptance B. explorer C. possibly D. refusal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from the Earth without a telescope. A B C D Question 6. Stand up straight, breathe deeply, hold your head up, and no look down! A B C D Question 7. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. On entering the nursery I stumbled on the wooden blocks ____________ all over the carpet. A. plunged B. scattered C. settled D. tossed Question 9. I don’t think you have been watering the plants near the gate. The soil is ____________ A. as dry as rice B. as dry as a tile C. as dry as a bone D. as dry as wood Question 10. ____________ pollution control measures are expensive, many industries hesitate to adopt them. A. Although B. However C. Because D. On account of Question 11. The company has just got a big order and the workers are working round the ____________ A. day B. clock C. hour D. night Question 12. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats. A. away B. out C. on D. off Question 13. Neither Peter nor his parents ____________ going to spend the summer abroad. A. is B. are C. was D. has been Question 14. The terrorists were asked whether they____________ guilty to the wrongdoing. A. pleaded B. confirmed C. stated D. admitted Question 15. I am sending you my curriculum vitae _______you will have a chance to study it before our interview. A. so that B. because C. for D. since Question 16. The university is proud of their students, ________ earn national recognition. A. many of who B. many of whom C. that D. whom Question 17. Not until late 1960s ___________ on the moon A. that Americans walked B. did Americans walk C. when did Americans walk D. when Americans walked Question 18. I ___________ a better job, and I am going to accept it. A. was offering B. have been offered C. was going to be offered D. am offering Question 19. We are considering having___________ for the coming New Year. A. redecorated our flat B. to redecorate our flat C. our flat to be redecorated D. our flat redecorated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. ‘Single or double?’ ‘_______’. A. Yes, it’s single. B. No, it’s not single. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. No, it’s double. D. Single, please. Question 21. ‘When will they get here?’ ‘_______’. A. By bus. B. They got here yesterday. C. Over there. D. I expect them before lunch. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. There was always sufficient money to go out for dinner. A. not enough B. too much C. enough D. none Question 23. Parents usually want their children to go to prestigious colleges. A. low-level B. cheap C. new D. highly respected Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. I have a vague recollection of meeting him when I was a child. I can‟t recall much about that. A. indistinct B. not clear C. imprecise D. apparent Question 25. I told her I understood exactly what she was feeling as we were both after all in the same boat. A. in a harder situation B. in the same situations C. in different situations D. in an easier situation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Payment must be made at the time of booking. A. You must pay before you book B. You are not allowed to pay when you book. C. You must pay when you book. D. Payment in advance is acceptable if you want to book. Question 27. The team is being sponsored by a local sport wares company. A. The team is part of the company. B. The team is a local one. C. The company is giving money to support the team’s activities. D. The company used to sponsor the team. Question 28. She would eat nothing but small pieces of bread and butter. This sentence means that she A. ate small pieces of bread and butter but didn’t like them. B. ate only some small pieces of bread and butter. C. didn’t eat anything, not even the bread and butter. D. wouldn’t touch the bread and butter, but she ate other things. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. The student next to me kept chewing gum. That bothered me a lot. A. The student next to me kept chewing gum, that bothered me a lot. B. The student next to me kept chewing gum, which bothered me a lot. C. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothering me a lot. D. The student next to me kept chewing gum bothered me a lot. Question 30. Transportation has been made much easier thanks to the invention of cars. However, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution. A. The invention of cars has made transportation much easier, but cars are among the greatest contributors of air pollution. B. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, people use cars to contribute to the pollution of air. C. Although the invention of cars has made transportation much easier, cars are the greatest contributor of air pollution. D. However easier the invention of cars has made transportation, it is cars that are among the greatest contributors of air pollution. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Health is something we tend to (31) _______ when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are hardly aware of it. But illness can come, even (32) _______ we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little how to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago,(33) _________, scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The cause of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose medical discovery spread, the world became____ (34) _____ safer for children. The result is that whereas a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 35 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can expect to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (35) ________. Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today. Question 31. A. forget B. ignore C. give up D. throw away Question 32. A. if B. so C. when D. while Question 33. A. therefore B. however C. although D. moreover Question 34. A. more B. much C. very D. quite Question 35. A. speed up B. run C. accelerate D. advance Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classical and medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant reading aloud. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace. One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because reading aloud was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silent reading have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasks themselves changed in character. The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As the number of readers increases, the number of potential listeners decline and thus there was some reduction in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages and offices, where reading aloud would cause distraction to other readers. Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books should be used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such as newspapers was in some mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still in education. However, whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced by the printed mass media on the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialized readership on the other. By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to books and to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social, cultural and technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied. Question 36. Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because______ A. few people could read to themselves. B. people relied on reading for entertainment. C. there were few places available for private reading D. silent reading had not been discovered Question 37. The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “______ .” A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use C. most preferable. D. widely used Question 38. The development of silent reading during the last century indicated______ A. an increase in the number of books. B. an increase in the average age of readers. C. a change in the nature of reading D. a change in the status of literate people. Question 39. Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of______ A. the increase in literacy B. the decreasing number of listeners C. the decreasing need to read aloud D. the development of libraries Question 40. The phrase “a specialized readership” in paragraph 4 mostly means “______ ” A. a reading volume for particular professionals. B. a status for reader specialized in mass media. C. a requirement for readers in a particular area of knowledge D. a limited number of readers in a particular area of knowledge Question 41. All of the following might be the factors that effected the continuation of the old shard literacy culture EXCEPT ____ A. the specialized readership B. the inappropriate reading skills C. the diversity of reading materials. D. the print mass media Question 42. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE according to the passage? A. The decline of reading aloud was wholly due to its distracting effect B. Reading aloud was more common in the past than it is today C. Not all printed mass media was appropriate for reading aloud D. The change in reading habits was partly due to the social, cultural and technological changes. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 43. The writer of this passage is attempting to______ A. show how reading methods have improved B. encourage the growth of reading C. explain how reading habits have developed D. change people’s attitudes to reading Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. For many people who live in cities, parks are an important part of the landscape. They provide a place for people to relax and play sports, as well as a refuge from the often harsh environment of a city. What people often overlook is that parks also provide considerable environmental benefits. One benefit of parks is that plants absorb carbon dioxide—a key pollutant—and emit oxygen, which humans need to breathe. According to one study, an acre of trees can absorb the same amount of carbon dioxide that a typical car emits in 11,000 miles of driving. Parks also make cities cooler. Scientists have long noted what is called the Urban Heat Island Effect: building materials such as metal, concrete, and asphalt absorb much more of the sun’s heat and release it much more quickly than organic surfaces like trees and grass. Because city landscapes contain so much of these building materials, cities are usually warmer than surrounding rural areas. Parks and other green spaces help to mitigate the Urban Heat Island Effect. Unfortunately, many cities cannot easily create more parks because most land is already being used for buildings, roads, parking lots, and other essential parts of the urban environment. However, cities could benefit from many of the positive effects of parks by encouraging citizens to create another type of green space: rooftop gardens. While most people would not think of starting a garden on their roof, human beings have been planting gardens on rooftops for thousands of years. Some rooftop gardens are very complex and require complicated engineering, but others are simple container gardens that anyone can create with the investment of a few hundred dollars and a few hours of work. Rooftop gardens provide many of the same benefits as other urban park and garden spaces, but without taking up the much-needed land. Like parks, rooftop gardens help to replace carbon dioxide in the air with nourishing oxygen. They also help to lessen the Urban Heat Island Effect, which can save people money. In the summer, rooftop gardens prevent buildings from absorbing heat from the sun, which can significantly reduce cooling bills. In the winter, gardens help hold in the heat that materials like brick and concrete radiate so quickly, leading to savings on heating bills. Rooftop vegetable and herb gardens can also provide fresh food for city dwellers, saving them money and making their diets healthier. Rooftop gardens are not only something everyone can enjoy, they are also a smart environmental investment. Question 44. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that mitigate belongs to which of the following word groups? A. allay, alleviate, reduce B. absorb, intake, consume C. exacerbate, aggravate, intensify D. obliterate, destroy, annihilate Question 45. Using the information in paragraph 2 as a guide, it can be inferred that ______________ A. most people prefer parks to rooftop gardens B. most people prefer life in the country over life in the city C. cities with rooftop gardens are cooler than those without rooftop gardens D. some plants are not suitable for growth in rooftop gardens Question 46. Based on the information in paragraph 3, which of the following best describes the main difference between parks and rooftop gardens? A. Parks absorb heat while rooftop gardens do not. B. Parks require much space while rooftop gardens do not. C. Parks are expensive to create while rooftop gardens are not. D. Parks are public while rooftop gardens are private. Question 47. The author claims all of the following to be the benefits of rooftop gardens EXCEPT ______________ A. savings on heating and cooling costs B. better food for city dwellers C. improved air quality D. increased space for private relaxation Question 48. According to the author, one advantage that rooftop gardens have over parks is that they ______________ A. do not require the use of valuable urban land B. decrease the Urban Heat Island Effect C. replenish the air with nourishing oxygen D. are less expensive than traditional park spaces Question 49. The author’s tone in the passage is best described as______________ A. informative B. argumentative C. descriptive D. passionate Question 50. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage? A. A thesis is presented and then supported. B. A hypothesis is stated and then analyzed. C. A proposal is evaluated and alternatives are explored. D. A viewpoint is established and then defended. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose THE END! PRACTICE TEST 86 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. deception B. recipient C. receding D. recipe Question 2: A. arrival B. technical C. proposal D. approval Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. failure B. pleasure C. leisure D. measure Question 4: A. increase B. meant C. flea D. lease Mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to show the underlined part that need correction Question 5: Psychological experiment indicate that people remember more math problems that they can’t solve than those they are able to solve A. those B. solve C. to solve D. experiment Question 6: Salmon lay their eggs, and die in freshwater although they live in salt water when most of their adults lives A. although B. lay C. adult lives D. when Question 7: In order to survive, trees rely to the amount of annual rainfall they receive as well as the seasonal distribution of the rain A. of B. rely to C. as well D. seasonal Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Anne was not ___ to think that the test was too difficult A. who B. the one who C. the only one D. among the people Question 9: Over 20 years ___ but I never forgot the time we first met each other A. have gone down B. have gone up C. has gone by D. has gone out Question 10: The surgeon tried to save the man but unluckily the ___ was not successful A. salvation B. operation C. generation D. solution Question 11: The teacher at this school ____ with flu one after the other A. went down B. went off C. went out D. went under Question 12: ___ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get in to the new house A. Movements B. Removals C. Removements D. Moves Question 13: Please cut my hair ____ the style in this magazine A. the same long as B. the same long like C. the same length like D. the same length as Question 14: The house is too dark. You’d better need ___ a bright color A. to be painted B. painting it C. to have it painted D. to have it paint Question 15: It’s time the authorities ___ people ____ safety helmets A. have/ wear B. had/ wear C. had/ to wear D. have/ worn Question 16: My music teacher suggested ___ for an hour before breakfast A. practising B. to practise C. having practised D. to practising Question 17: The new manager explained to the staff that she hoped to ___ new procedures to save time and money A. manufacture B. establish C. control D. restore Question 18: Can I ___ our brain for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself A. use B. have C. mind D. pick Question 19: I can’t quite _____ out what the sign says A. make B. get C. read D. carry Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions. Question 20: “Would you like to meet Mrs. Bruce?” “Yes, ____” A. I can make an appointment with her B. I’d love to C. I find it very interesting D. I don’t know where she living Question 21: “Would you like a co*ke?” “_____” A. Yes, I’d like B. Yes, please C. Yes, I do D. Yes, I like Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: He was sacked from his job after the manager discovered that he had stolen some money from his colleagues A. dismissed B. dropped C. ejected D. evicted Question 23: The detective was asked to probe into the mysterious disappearance of the painting Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. investigate B. procure C. recover D. relinquish Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: The piece of work is urgent and must be done without delay A. gradually B. immediately C. efficiency D. previously Question 25: These machines are older models and have to be operated by hand A. mechanically B. manually C. automatically D. spiritually Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Not so long ago almost any students who successfully completed a university degree or diploma course could find a good career quite easily. Companies toured the academic institutions, competing with each other to recruit graduates. However, those days are gone, even in Hong Kong, and nowadays graduates often face strong competition in the search for jobs. Most careers organization highlight three stages for graduates to follow in the process of securing a suitable career: recognizing abilities, matching these to available vacancies and presenting them well to prospective employers Job seekers have to make a careful assessment of their own abilities. One area of assessment should be of their academic qualifications, which would include special skills within their subject area. Graduates should also consider their own personal values and attitudes, or the relative importance to themselves of such matters as money, security, leadership and caring or others. An honest assessment of personal interests and abilities such as creative or scientific skills acquired from work experience should also be give careful thought The second stage is to study the opportunities available for employment and to think about how the general employment situation is likely to develop in the future. To do this, graduates can study job vacancies and information in newspapers or the can visit a career office, write to possible employers for information or contact friends or relatives who may already be involved in a particular profession. After studying all various options, they should be in a position to make informed comparisons between various careers Good personal presentation is essential in the search for a good career. Job application forms and letters should, of course, be filled in carefully and correctly, without grammar or spelling errors. Where additional information is asked for, job seekers should describe their abilities and work experience in more depth, with example if possible. They should try to balance their own abilities with the employer’s needs, explain why they are interested in a career with the particular company and try to show that they already know something about the company and its activities When graduates are asked to attend for the interview, they should prepare properly by finding out all they can about the prospective employer. Dressing suitably and arriving for the interview on time are also obviously important. Interviewees should try to give positive and helpful answers and should not be afraid to ask questions about anything they are unsure about. This is much better than pretending to understand a question and giving an unsuitable answer There will always be good career opportunities for people with ability, skills, and determination; the secret to securing a good job is to be one of them Question 26: In paragraph 1, “those days are gone, even in Hong Kong”. Suggests that ____ A. in the past, finding a good career was easier in Hong Kong than elsewhere B. nowadays, everyone in Hong Kong has an equal chance of finding a good job C. it used to be harder to find a good job in Hong Kong than in other countries D. even in Hong Kong companies tour the universities trying to recruit graduates Question 27: The word “prospective” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to ____ A. generous B. reasonable C. future D. ambitious Question 28: According to paragraph 3, job seekers should: A. aim to give a balanced account of what the employer needs B. divide the time equally between listening to the interviewer and speaking C. discuss their own abilities in relation to what the employer is looking for D. attempt to show the employer is looking for Question 29: According to paragraph 3, graduates should ____ A. only consider careers which are suited to them as people B. include information about personal attitudes and values in their job application C. consider how lucky they are to be able to find careers that provide such things D. consider the values of their parents and families as well their own wishes Question 30: The advice given in the first sentences of paragraph 4 is to___ A. find out what jobs are available and the opportunities for future promotion B. examine the careers available and how these will be affected in the future Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. look at the information on, and probably future location of, various careers D. study the opportunities and the kinds of training that will be available Question 31: According to paragraph 4, graduates should ____ A. find a good position and then compare it with other careers B. ask friends or relatives to secure them a good job C. get information about a number of careers before making comparisons D. find out as much as possible and inform employers of the complaints they want Question 32: Which of the following does “this” in paragraph 6 refers to? A. Not being afraid to be unsure B. Giving positive and helpful answers to the questions C. Being prepared to ask questions about things they don’t understand D. Being unsure about the questions Question 33: In paragraph 6, the writer seems to suggest that ____ A. interviewees should ask question if they can’t think of an answer B. pretending to understand a question is better than giving a suitable answer C. it is better for interviewees to be honest than to pretend to understand D. it is not a good idea for interviewees to be completely honest in their answers Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Social parasitism involves one species relying on another to raise its young. Among vertebrates, the best known social parasites are such birds as cuckoos and cowbirds; the female lays egg in a nest belonging to another species and leaves it for the host to rear The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites. Consider, for example, the unusual behavior of ants belonging to the genus Polyergus. All species of this ant have lost the ability to care for themselves. The workers do not forage for food, feed their brood or queen, or even clean their own nest. To compensate for these deficits, Polyergus has become specialized at obtaining workers from the related genus Formica to do these chores In a raid, several thousand Polyergus workers will travel up to 500 feet in search of a Formica nest, penetrate it, drive off the queen and her workers, capture the pupal brood, and transport it back to their nest. The captured brood is then reared by the resident Formica workers until the developing pupae emerge to add to the Formica population, which maintains the mixed-species nest. The Formica workers forage for food and give it to colony members of both species. They also remove wastes and excavate new chambers as the population increases The true extent of the Polyergus and dependence on the Formica becomes apparent when the worker population grows too large for existing nest. Formica scouts locate a new nesting site, return to the mixed-species colony, and recruit additional Formica nest mates. During a period that may last seven days, the Formica workers carry to the new nest all the Polyergus eggs, larvae, and pupae, every Polyergus adult, and even the Polyergus queen Of the approximately 8000 species of ants in the world, all 5 species of Polyergus and some 200 species in other genera have evolved some degree of parasitic relationship with other ants Question 34: Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage? A. Ants belonging to the genus Formica are incapable of performing certain tasks B. The genus Polyergus is quite similar to the genus Formica C. Ants belonging to the genus Polyergus have an unusual relationship with ants belonging to the genus Formica D. Polyergus ants frequently leave their nests to build new colonies Question 35: The word “raise” is closest in meaning to _____ A. rear B. lift C. collect D. increase Question 36: The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds because they _____ A. share their nests with each other B. are closely related species C. raise the young of their birds D. are social parasites Question 37: The word “it” refers to ______A. species B. nest C. egg D. female Question 38: What does the author mean by stating that “The dulotic species of ants, however, are the supreme social parasites” A. The Polyergus are more highly developed than the Formica B. The Formica have developed specialized roles C. The Polyergus are heavily dependent on the Formica D. The Formica do not reproduce rapidly enough to care for themselves Question 39: The word “excavate” is closest in meaning to _____A. find B. clean C. repair D. dig Question 40: According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to ants beginning to the genus Formica EXCEPT ______ A. dulotic B. captured brood C. developing pupae a D. worker population Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose One of the most beautiful parts of Britain is the Lake District. The Lake District is situated in the north-west of England and consists of high hills, mountains and, of course, lakes. In all, there are 16 lakes, of (41)_____ the largest is Lake Windermere. Over the years many writers have been (42)_____ with this region but there can be no (43)_____ that the most famous of all was William Wordsworth (1770-1850), who was born and lived almost the whole of his life there. He had close connections with the village of Grasmere, where he lived for some thirteen years. He loved this particular part of England and many of his poems of the joy he felt when surrounded by beautiful countryside Every year more than 14 million people from Britain and abroad visit the Lake District to enjoy the fresh air and the scenery. Some go to walk in the mountains while others sail boats on the lakes or simply sit admiring the (44)_____ views. Unfortunately, the region is becoming a victim of its own success in attracting visitors. (45)____ come to the Lake District that they threaten to destroy the peace and quite which many are searching for there Question 41: A. all B. them C. which D. those Question 42:A. associated B. connected C. bound D. linked Question 43:A. thought B. evidence C. supposition D. doubt Question 44: A. principal B. magnificent C. effective D. significant Question 45: A. Such many people B. So few people C. So many people D. Such people Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: “I have found a new flat,” said Ann. A. Ann told that she had found a new flat. B. Ann said to me that she had found a new flat. C. Ann said that she has found a new flat. D. Ann said me that she had found a new flat Question 47: I have never played golf before. A. This is the first time I have played golf. B. I used to play golf but I gave it up already C. It’s the last time I played golf. D. It is the first time I had played golf. Question 48: They cancelled all flights because of fog. A. All flights were cancelled by them of fog. B. All flights were because of fog were cancelled. C. All flights were because of fog cancelled. D. All flights were cancelled because of fog. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: We arrived at the conference. We realized our reports were still at home. A. We arrived at the conference and realized that our reports are still at home. B. It was until we arrived at the conference that we realize our reports were still at home. C. Not until we arrived at the conference, did we realize that our reports were still at home D. Not until had we arrived at the conference, we realized our reports were still at home. Question 50: I should have studied last night. However, I was too tired. A. I couldn't study last night because I was very tired. B. I studied last night because I was bored. C. I studied last night because I had to. D. I tried to study last night, but the homework was too hard. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 87 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. uniform B. situation C. unemployment D. amusing Question 2. A. benefit B. every C. bed D. enjoy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. suspicion B. telephone C. relation D. direction Question 4. A. reduction B. popular C. financial D. romantic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Dictionaries frequently explain the origin of the defined word, state its part of speech and A B C indication its correct use. D Question 6. Tom said that if he had to do another homework tonight, he would not be able to A B C attend the concert. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D Question 7. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. Several deserts are a quite vast and uninhabited ________. A. plain B. territory C. corridor D. shrub Question 9. His health would be improved________. A. if he continued to smoke heavily B. unless he stopped smoking heavily C. if he gave up smoking D. if only he doesn't smoke any more. Question 10. Many tall and wide mountain ranges do not let much rain get ________ the desert. A. into B. away C. out D. from Question 11. I wanted to go a more ________ route across Montana. A. north B. northerly C. northerner D. northernmost Question 12. Toxic chemicals from factories are one of the serious factors that leads wildlife to the _______ of extinction. A. wall B. fence C. verge D. bridge Question 13. ________ she could not say anything. A. So upset was she that B. So upset was she C. However upset was she that D. Therefore upset was she that Question 14. Migrant workers are________ to exploitation. A. eager B. vulnerable C. available D. considerate Question 15. Internationally, 189 countries have signed _______ accord agreeing to create Biodiversity Action Plans to protect endangered and other threatened species. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø Question 16. Carl ________ studied harder; he failed the test again. A. must have B. should have C. could have D. needn't have Question 17. ________ to the skin, they eventually got to the station. A. Soaked B. Soaking C. To soak D. Having soaked Question 18. It's no good________ to him; he never answers letters. A. write B. to write C. writing D. for writing Question 19. When old Mr. Barnaby died, several people________ their claim to the substantial legacy that he left. A. placed B. drew C. assumed D. laid Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Would you mind closing the window please? A. Yes of course. Are you cold? B. No, not at all. I will close it now. C. Yes I do. You can close it. D. Yes of course you can do it. Question 21. Do you have the time please? A. I am very sorry. I am already late. B. I am busy right now. I am afraid. C. I am sorry I don’t have a watch here. D. Yes I have some time for you. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The people of the province wanted to become a sovereign state. A. rich B. self-ruling C. new D. colonized Question 23. The prince was next in the order of succession. A. death B. eating C. height D. replacement Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court. A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money Question 25. His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning . A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Slippery as the roads were, they managed to complete the race. A. The roads were so slippery that they could hardly complete the race. B. The roads were slippery but they managed to complete the race. C. The roads were slippery so they could hardly complete the race. D. The roads were so slippery; therefore, they could hardly complete the race. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 27. They decided to go for a picnic though it was very cold. A. Because it was very cold, they decided to go for a picnic. B. However cold it was, they decided to go for a picnic. C. If it had been cold, they would not have gone for a picnic. D. It was very cold so they decided to go for a picnic. Question 28. Both Peter and Mary enjoy scientific expedition. A. It is not Peter, but Mary, that enjoys scientific expedition. B. Peter enjoys scientific expedition. Therefore, does Mary. C. However Peter enjoys scientific expedition and Mary does. D. Peter enjoys scientific expedition, and so does Mary. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. Henry should have done his homework last night, but he watched TV instead. A. Henry did not do his homework last night because he was busy with the television set. B. Henry watched TV last night instead of doing his homework. C. Henry did not watch TV last night because he had to do his homework. D. Henry did his homework while watching TV. Question 30. Seeing that he was angry, she left the office. A. She didn't want to make him angry, so she left. B. He wouldn't have been so angry if she hadn't been there. C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the office.D. She left the office when she saw how angry he was. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. English has without a (31) ____ become the second language of Europe and the world. European countries which have most (32) ____ assimilated English into daily life are England's neighbors in Northern Europe: Ireland, the Netherlands, Sweden, Norway, and the rest of Scandinavia. The situation is so (33) ____ that any visitor to the Netherlands will soon be aware of the pressure of English on daily life: television, radio and print bring it into every home and the schoolyard conversation of children; advertisers use it to (34) ____ up their message, journalists take refuge in it when their home-bred skills fail them. Increasingly one hears the (35) ____ that Dutch will give way to English as the national tongue within two or three generations. Question 31.
A.
question
B.
doubt
C.
problem
D.
thought
Question 32.
A.
successfully
B.
victorious
C.
successful
D.
lucrative
Question 33.
A.
plain
B.
open
C.
blatant
D.
marked
Question 34.
A.
life
B.
energy
C.
pep
D.
enthusiasm
Question 35
A.
feeling
B.
posture
C.
judgment
D.
view
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. ARE HUMAN BEINGS GETTING SMARTER? Do you think you're smarter than your parents and grandparents? According to James Flynn, a professor at a New Zealand university, you are! Over the course of the last century, people who have taken IQ tests have gotten increasingly better scores-on average, three points better for every decade that has passed. This improvement is known as "the Flynn effect," and scientists want to know what is behind it. IQ tests and other similar tests are designed to measure general intelligence rather than knowledge. Flynn knew that intelligence is partly inherited from our parents and partly the result of our environment and experiences, but the improvement in test scores was happening too quickly to be explained by heredity. So what was happening in the 20th century that was helping people achieve higher scores on intelligence tests? Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. Some suggest that the improved test scores simply reflect an increased exposure to tests in general. Because we take so many tests, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. Others have pointed to better nutrition since it results in babies being born larger, healthier, and with more brain development than in the past. Another possible explanation is a change in educational styles, with teachers encouraging children to learn by discovering things for themselves rather than just memorizing information. This could prepare people to do the kind of problem solving that intelligence tests require. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Flynn limited the possible explanations when he looked carefully at the test data and discovered that the improvement in scores was only on certain parts of the IQ test. Test takers didn't do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test; they did better on sections that required a special kind of reasoning and problem solving. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for patterns and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set. According to Flynn, this visual intelligence improves as the amount of technology in our lives increases. Every time you play a computer game or figure out how to program a new cell phone, you are exercising exactly the kind of thinking and problem solving that helps you do well on one kind of intelligence test. So are you really smarter than your parents? In one very specific way, you may be. Question 36. The Flynn effect is____________. A. used to measure intelligent B. an increase in IQ test scores over time C. unknown in some parts of the world D. not connected to our experiences Question 37. The Flynn effect must be the result of____________. A. heredity B. our environment and experiences C. taking fewer tests D. memorizing information Question 38. IQ tests evaluate____________. A. our knowledge B. our environment C. our intelligence D. our memories Question 39. Which sentence from the article gives a main idea? A. Scientists have proposed several explanations for the Flynn effect. B. Because we take so many tests in our lives, we learn test-taking techniques that help us perform better on any test. C. Test-takers didn’t do better on the arithmetic or vocabulary sections of the test. D. For example, one part of the test shows a set of abstract shapes, and test-takers must look for pattern and connections between them and decide which shape should be added to the set. Question 40. According to the article, newer education techniques include____________. A. exposure to many tests B. children finding things out themselves C. memorizing information D. improved test scores Question 41. Why does the author mention computer games? A. to give an example of technology that improve our visual intelligence. B. to explain why young people have poor vocabularies. C. to encourage the reader to exercise. D. to show that young people are not getting more intelligent. Question 42. Which statement would Professor Flynn agree with? A. People today are more intelligent than in the past in every way. B. People today have fewer problems to solve. C. People today are taking easier tests. D. People today have more visual intelligence. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Learning means acquiring knowledge or developing the ability to perform new behaviors. It is common to think of learning as something that takes place in school, but much of human learning occurs outside the classroom, and people continue to learn throughout their lives. Even before they enter school, young children learn to walk, to talk, and to use their hands to manipulate toys, food, and other objects. They use all of their senses to learn about the sights, sounds, tastes, and smells in their environments. They learn how to interact with their parents, siblings, friends, and other people important to their world. When they enter school, children learn basic academic subjects such as reading, writing, and mathematics. They also continue to learn a great deal outside the classroom. They learn which behaviors are likely to be rewarded and which are likely to be punished. They learn social skills for interacting with other children. After they finish school, people must learn to adapt to the many major changes that affect their lives, such as getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job. Because learning continues throughout our lives and affects almost everything we do, the study of learning is important in many different fields. Teachers need to understand the best ways to educate children. Psychologists, social workers, criminologists, and other human-service workers need to understand how certain experiences change people’s behaviors. Employers, politicians, and advertisers make use of the principles of learning to influence the behavior of workers, voters, and consumers. Learning is closely related to memory, which is the storage of information in the brain. Psychologists who study memory are interested in how the brain stores knowledge, where this storage takes place, and how the brain later retrieves knowledge when we need it. In contrast, psychologists who study learning are more interested in behavior and how behavior changes as a result of a person’s experiences. There are many forms of learning, ranging from simple to complex. Simple forms of learning involve a single stimulus. A stimulus is anything perceptible to the senses, such as a sight, sound, smell, touch, or taste. In a form of learning known as classical conditioning, people learn to associate two stimuli that occur in sequence, such as Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose lightning followed by thunder. In operant conditioning, people learn by forming an association between a behavior and its consequences (reward or punishment). People and animals can also learn by observation – that is, by watching others perform behaviors. More complex forms of learning in clued learning languages, concepts, and motor skills. Question 43. According to the passage, which of the following is learning in broad view comprised of? A. Acquisition of academic knowledge B. Acquisition of social and behavioral skills C. Knowledge acquisition and ability development D. Knowledge acquisition outside the classroom Question 44. According to the passage, what are children NOT usually taught outside the classroom? A. Literacy and calculation B. Interpersonal communication C. Life skills D. Right from wrong Question 45. Getting married, raising children, and finding and keeping a job are mentioned in paragraph 2 as examples of ________. A. the situations in which people cannot teach themselves B. the changes to which people have to orient themselves C. the areas of learning which affect people’s lives D. the ways people’s lives are influenced by education Question 46. Which of the following can be inferred about the learning process from the passage? A. It is more interesting and effective in school than that in life. B. It becomes less challenging and complicated when people grow older. C. It plays a crucial part in improving the learner’s motivation in school. D. It takes place more frequently in real life than in academic institutions. Question 47. It can be inferred from the passage that social workers, employers, and politicians concern themselves with the study of learning because they need to ______. A. understand how a stimulus relates to the senses of the objects of their interest B. change the behaviors of the objects of their interest towards learning C. thoroughly understand the behaviors of the objects of their interest D. make the objects of their interest more aware of the importance of learning Question 48. The word “retrieves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. recovers B. generates C. creates D. gains Question 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage? A. Psychologists studying learning are interested in human behaviors. B. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with how the stored knowledge is used. C. Psychologists studying memory are concerned with the brain’s storage of knowledge. D. Psychologists are all interested in memory as much as behaviors. Question 50. The passage mainly discusses ______. A. simple forms of learning B. practical examples of learning inside the classroom C. general principles of learning D. application of learning principles to formal education THE END!
PRACTICE TEST 88 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. situation B. story C. sugar D. station Question 2. A. hate B. hat C. bad D. dad Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. report B. master C. foreign D. private Question 4. A. automatic B. Conversation C. disadvantage D. reasonable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Children subjected to violence, exploitation, abuse and neglect are in risk of death, A B C poor physical and mental health, HIV/AIDS infection, and educational problems. D Question 6. It spent a long time to travel to the skiing resort but in the end, we got there. A B C D Question 7. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. Ever since we quarreled in the office, Janice and I have been ____________ enemies. A. assured B. sworn C. defined D. guaranteed Question 9. ____________ Tom nor his brothers help in the housework. A. Not B. Both C. Either D. Neither Question 10. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to ____________ A. come into B. come by C. come to D. come at Question 11. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel. A. is combined B. that is combined C. combining D. when combined Question 12. Ann’s encouraging words gave me ____ to undertake the demanding task once again. A. a point B. an incentive C. a resolution D. a target Question 13. Having made his first film earlier this year, he is____________ starring in a new musical. A. actually B. currently C. lately D. recently Question 14. It's no____________ asking him for anything seeing that he's not very responsive to our requests. A. well B. fine C. need D. good Question 15. They are happily married although, of course, they argue____________ A. most times B. from day to day C. every now and then D. on the occasion Question 16. People who reverse the letters of words _______ to read suffer from dyslexia. A. if they tried B. when trying C. when tried D. if he tries Question 17. Mary was the last applicant____________ A. to be interviewed B. to be interviewing C. to interview D. to have interviewed Question 18. My cat would not have bitten the toy fish____________ it was made of rubber. A. if she has known B. if she should known C. had she known D. if she knew Question 19. You ____________ thirsty after such a long walk on a hot day like this. A. should have been B. must be C. must have been D. should be Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Tom: “I thought your performance last Sunday was wonderful.” Laura: “________________________” A. Don’t tell a lie. I thought it was terrible. B. You must be kidding. It was not as good as I had expected. C. I completely agree with you. It was terrific. D. No doubt! Question 21. Boy: “What is your greatest phobia?” Girl: “________________________” A. I'm afraid not. B. Worms, definitely! C. Probably people who smoke. D. I haven't made up my mind. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The government initiative to clean up the beaches was a success. A. higher taxes B. organized effort C. introduction D. time period Question 23. His new degree opened up many avenues of opportunity for him. A. channels B. streets C. names D. problems Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. I’ve become a bit of a couch potato since I stopped playing football. A. a kind person B. a lazy person C. a nice person D. a live wire Question 25. That last comment of yours won the day because nobody could possibly argue with you after that. A. was a success B. was a big hit C. was a break-through D. was a failure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Seeing that he was so angry, she left the office A. She left the office when she saw how angry he was B. She didn’t want to make him angry, so she left the office C. He grew very angry when he saw her leaving the officeD. He wouldn’t have been so angry if she hadn’t left Question 27. When I was younger I used to go climbing more than I do now A. Now I don’t go climbing anymore B. I used to go climbing when I was younger C. I don’t like going climbing anymore D. Now I don’t go climbing as much as I did Question 28. The more money Dane makes, the more his wife spends. A. Dane spends more money than his wife. B. Dane's wife keeps spending more money. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. Dane spends the money his wife makes D. Dane and his wife both make money. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room. He opened the window. A. The man wanted to get some fresh air in the room because he opened the window. B. The man opened the window in order to get some fresh air in the room. C. The man got some fresh air in the room, even though he opened the window. D. Having opened the window, the room could get some fresh air. Question 30. The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice. A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice. B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice. C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice. D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Here is a wonderful opportunity at a small cost to visit the truly remarkable island of Cuba. We have (31) ________ rooms at some of the finest hotels for periods of 7 and 14 nights. You may divide your time between relaxing and exploring this beautiful country by taking advantage of our extensive excursion programme. The diversity of such a small country is amazing and, as it is set in the warm waters of Caribbean, it is (32) ________ to have one of the most pleasant climates in the world. Cuba, being so small, is not only an ideal country to tour, but it's also a place where visitors can relax and (33) ________ in exotic surroundings. Not only has nature (34) ________ Cuba with magnificent coast and some fine sandy beaches, but there are also extensive facilities near them. Most beaches are close to important sites such as international parks with their abundant wildlife, flora and fauna. Because the south of the island is blessed with being the driest region in the country most hotels are situated here. Rain is however (35) ________ in the north from December to July. Question 31. A. reserved B. registered C. required D. retained Question 32. A. suggested B. hoped C. reputed D. credited Question 33. A. unwind B. uncoil C. unburden D. unroll Question 34. A. enhanced B. endowed C. endured D. enlightened Question 35. A. unusual B. interminable C. inevitable D. unfortunate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. BRINGING UP CHILDREN Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development, and is the basic of work in child clinics. The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too great demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches eagerly the child's acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early, a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things for himself. Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents. By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords are good examples. Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children. Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as much as the child's own happiness and well-being. With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency is very important in Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that“Example is better than precept”. If they are hypocritical and do not practice what they preach, their children may grow confused and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion Question 36. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children . A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains B. is to send them to clinics C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced D. offers recapture of earlier experiences Question 37. Learning to wait for things is successfully taught . A. in spite of excessive demands being made B. only if excessive demands are avoided C. because excessive demands are not advisable D. is achieved successfully by all children Question 38. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills . A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate Question 39. Parental controls and discipline . A. serve a dual purpose B. are designed to promote the child's happiness C. reflect only the values of the community D. should be avoided as far as possible Question 40. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” . A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves B. would help avoid the necessity for ethics and morals C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise Question 41. In the 1st paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of ____ helping the child in trouble. A. Psychiatrists B.community C. family D. nursery Question 42. Hypocrisy on the part of the Parents may__________. A. result in their children's wrong behaviors. B. make their children lose faith in them C. disqualify their teachings altogether D. impair their children's mind Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. According to airline industry statistics, almost 90 percent of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how to release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feet flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits to so that you can find them in the dark if necessary. In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkins, towels, or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they are inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from them as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage. Question 43. What is the main topic of the passage? A. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival.B. Airline industry accident statistics. C. Procedures for evacuating aircraft. D. Safety instructions in air travel. Question 44. Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions A. if smoke is in the cabin B. before take off C. in an emergency D. before locating the exits Question 45. According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before takeoff. A. The ones with counted rows of seats between them. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose B. The ones that can be found in the dark. C. The two closest to the passenger's seat. D. The nearest one. Question 46. It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircrafts if they____________. A. wear a safety belt B. don't smoke in or near a plane C. read airline safety statistics D. keep their heads low Question 47. Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT A. locate the nearest exit B. ask questions about safety C. fasten their seat belts before takeoff D. carry personal belongings in an emergency Question 48. The word "inflated" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. extended B. assembled C. lifted D. expanded Question 49. The word "wreckage" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. material B. damage C. prosperity D. wreck Question 50. What does the paragraph following the passage most probably discuss! A. How to recover your luggage B. Where to go to continue your trip C. When to return to the aircraft D. How to proceed once you are away from the aircraft THE END! PRACTICE TEST 89 Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions Question 1: A. important B. informal C. intention D. impolite Question 2:A. demand B. desert C. decide D. defend Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs in the pronunciation in each of the following questions Question 3: A. seizure B. measure C. confusion D. tension Question 4: A. whole B. whoop C. whose D. white Mark the letter A, B, C, D to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: Mrs. Steven, along with her cousins from New Mexico, are planning to attend the festivities A. with B. her cousins from C. are D. to attend Question 6: The lion has long been a symbol of strength, power, and it is very cruel A. The B. long C. a D. it is very cruel Question 7: The function of pain is to warn the individual of danger so he can take action to avoid more serious damage A. to warn B. so C. he D. serious Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: Peter was born and brought up in Cornwall and he knows the place like the ____ A. nose on his face B. back of his hand C. hairs on his head D. tip of his tongue Question 9: I am _____ of the two children in our family A. the tallest B. the taller C. tall D. taller Question 10: I want to ____ this old car for a Ferrari but I don’t have enough money now A. change B. exchange C. sell D. replace Question 11: I had to look up the number in the telephone ____ A. directors B. directly C. direction D. directory Question 12: It’s hard to _____ on less than a million a month A. make ends meet B. make a fuss C. make up your mind D. make a mess Question 13: Only if I had known the difference ____ the more expensive car A. would I bought B. would I have bought C. would I buy D. I would have bought Question 14: He impressed ____ his mind the words his father said to him that day A. in B. on C. at D. of Question 15: I have bad toothache today. I ____ to the dentist yesterday when it started hurting A. should go B. should be C. should have gone D. should have been Question 16: The house still remains in ___ after the hurricane A. a good condition B. good condition C. good conditions D. the good condition Question 17: Sales ___ are paid a salary but they may also get commissions on sales A. representations B. presenters C. presentations D. representatives Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 18: They intended to ____ with the old computers as soon as they could afford some new ones A. do away B. do up C. do over D. do down Question 19: We regret to tell you that materials you order are out of _____ A. work B. stock C. reach D. practice Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions. Question 20: “Didn’t you go to the cinema last night?” “____” A. Yes, I lost the ticket B. No. It was too cold to go out C. Ok. That was a good idea D. Yes, I stayed at home th Question 21: “Today is my 18 birthday” “______” A. Many happy returns! B. I don’t understand C. Take care D. Have a good time Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part Question 22 : Although the prank was meant in fun, the man became very angry A. remark B. praise C. trick D. game Question 23: It was impossible to know how precarious the situation was A. hazardous B. ludicrous C. facetious D. marvelous Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part Question 24: He was not a good father. He neglected his children A. blamed B. took care of C. disregarded D. punished Question 25: Mr. Armstrong is said to be a fairly well-to-do man A. big B. important C. wealthy D. poor Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions According to airline industry statistics, almost 90% of airline accidents are survivable or partially survivable. But passengers can increase their chances of survival by learning and following certain tips. Experts say that you should read and listen to safety instructions before take-off and ask questions if you have uncertainties. You should fasten your seat belt low on your hips and as tightly as possible. Of course, you should also know how the release mechanism of your belt operates. During take-offs and landings, you are advised to keep your feed flat on the floor. Before take-off you should locate the nearest exit and an alternative exit and count the rows of seats between you and the exits so that you can find them in the dark if necessary In the event that you are forewarned of a possible accident, you should put your hands on your ankles and keep your head down until the plane comes to a complete stop. If smoke is present in the cabin, you should keep your head low and cover your face with napkin, towels or clothing. If possible, wet these for added protection against smoke inhalation. To evacuate as quickly as possible, follow crew commands and do not take personal belongings with you. Do not jump on escape slides before they’re fully inflated, and when you jump, do so with your arms and legs extended in front of you. When you get to the ground, you should move away from the plane as quickly as possible, and never smoke near the wreckage Question 26: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Airline industry accident statistics B. Procedures for evacuating aircraft C. Guidelines for increasing aircraft passenger survival D. Safety instruction in air travel Question 27: Travelers are urged by experts to read and listen to safety instructions _____ A. in an emergency B. before locating the exits C. if smoke is in the cabin D. before take-off Question 28: According to the passage, when should you keep your feet flat on the floor? A. throughout the flight B. during take-offs and landings C. especially during landings D. only if an accident is possible Question 29: According to the passage, which exits should an airline passenger locate before take-off” A. The ones that can be found in the dark B. The two closest to the passenger’s seat C. The nearest one D. The ones with counted rows of seats between them Question 30: The word “them” in the last line of the first paragraph refers to ___ A. rows B. feet C. seats D. exits Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that people are more likely to survive fires in aircraft if they ____ A. keep their heads low B. war a safety belt C. don’t smoke in or near a plane D. read airline safety statistics Question 32: Airline passengers are advised to do all of the following EXCEPT ____ A. locate the nearest exits B. ask questions about safety Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. fasten their seat belts before take-off D. carry personal belongings in an emergency Question 33: The word “evacuate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____ A. evade B. vacate C. escape D. maintain Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Franklin D. Roosevelt, the 32nd President of the United States, was from a wealthy well-known family. As a child, he attended private school, had private tutors, and traveled with his parents to Europe. He attended Harvard University, and afterward studied law. At age 39, Roosevelt suddenly developed polio, a disease that left him without the full use of his legs for the rest of his life. Even though the worst of his illness, however, he continued his life in politics. In 1942 he appeared at the Democratic National Convention to nominate Al Smith for president, and eight years after that he himself was nominated for the same office. Roosevelt was elected to the presidency during the Great Depression of the 1930s, at a time when more than 5,000 banks had failed and thousands of people were out of work. Roosevelt took action. First he declared a bank holiday that closed all the banks so no more could fail; then he reopened the banks little by little with government support. Roosevelt believed in using the full power of government to help what he called the “forgotten people”. And it was these workers, the wage earners, who felt the strongest affection toward Roosevelt. There were others, however, who felt that Roosevelt’s policies were destroying the American system of government, and they opposed him in the same intense way that others admired him In 1940 the Democrats nominated Roosevelt for an unprecedented third term. No president in American history had ever served three terms, but Roosevelt felt an obligation not to quit while the United States’ entry into World War II was looming in the future. He accepted the nomination and went on to an easy victory Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. political aspects of Roosevelt’s life B. problems during the Great Depression C. Roosevelt’s upbringing D. criticisms of Roosevelt’s action Question 35: Which on of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Roosevelt was elected during the Great Depression B. Roosevelt voted for Al Smith C. Roosevelt had difficulty walking during his presidency D. Roosevelt supported strong government powers Question 36: The phrase “took action” in the first paragraph is used to illustrate the idea that Roosevelt _______ A. performed admirably B. exerted himself physically C. responded immediately D. got assistance Question 37: As used in the passage, the phrase “little by little” means that Roosevelt ____ A. opened the smaller banks first B. opened the banks for minimal services C. opened the banks a few at a time D. opened the bank for a short time Question 38: The word “full” in the first paragraph could be best replaced by which of the following? A. packed B. loaded C. overflowing D. complete Question 39: The word “affection” could be best replaced by which of the following? A. fascination B. fondness C. lure D. appeal Question 40: In the second paragraph, the author uses the word “looming” to indicate a feeling of _____ A. reservation B. determination C. regret D. threat Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks All men should study, we have to study to (41) _____ our knowledge and develop our intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his body strength to work and live. An educated man, without this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good inflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly (42)_____ cleverly In a same profession or work, the educated man differs from the uneducated considerably. Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but (43)____ workers must also (44)_____ an education In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. Man must spend seven or eight years studying. From ploughmen to laborers in these nations, no one is (45)____ to read a book or a paper fluently Question 41:A. wide B. widely C. widen D. broad Question 42:A. and B. but C. yet D. or Question 43: A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual Question 44:A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know Question 45:A. able B. unable C. not D. never Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: They say that the doctor has made a serious mistake. A. The doctor is said that he has made a serious mistake. B. It is said that the doctor has been made a serious mistake. C. The doctor is said to have made a serious mistake. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose D. The doctor is said to make a serious mistake. Question 47: My shoes need cleaning. A. I need to clean my shoes. B. I have to clean my shoes. C. Cleaning is needed for my shoes. D. I need to have my shoes cleaned. Question 48: She is the most intelligent woman I have ever met. A. I have never met a more intelligent woman than her. B. She is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met. C. I have ever met such an intelligent woman. D. She is more intelligent than I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: As the luggage was so heavy, we had to take a taxi. A. We had to take a taxi because of the heavy luggage. B. We had to take a taxi so that we can have heavy luggage. C. Although the luggage was heavy, we took a taxi. D. We had to take a taxi, so we had heavy luggage. Question 50: I was offered to work for IBM, but I rejected. A. I turned down the offer to work for IBM. B. I rejected to offer to work for IBM. C. IBM refused my offer to work. D. I was refused by IBM at work THE END! PRACTICE TEST 90 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. contain B. purchase C. reflect D. suggest Question 2. A. facilitate B. dimensional C. historical D. instrumental Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. change B. generous C. gear D. jealous Question 4. A. lost B. post C. loan D. pole Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5. The small, ______ farms of New England were not appropriate for the Midwest. A. self-supporting B. self-supported C. supporting themselves D. they supported themselves Question 6. The access __________ education and the change __________ economic status have given women more freedom. A. in / in B. at / from C. to / in D. in / to Question 7. He really deserved the award because he performed _________ what was expected of him. A. much better than B. much better which C. the most that D. much more as Question 8. _______the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment. A. No sooner B. Just before C. Not until D. Only Question 9. Everything is __________ you. I cannot make __________ my mind yet. A.out off / on B. up to /up C. away from / for D. on for / off Question 10. ______ his brother, Mike is active and friendly. A. Alike B. Unlike C. Dislike D. Liking Question 11. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver _________in the crash. A. are injured B. was injured C. were injured D. have been injured Question 12. I phoned the company, who ______ me that my goods had been dispatched. A. guaranteed B. assured C. reassured D. confirmed Question 13. When the car was invented, I don’t think anyone could have predicted______it would change the world. A. how B. when C. why D. what Question 14. Dry salt lakes _________ 70 kilometers long and 15 kilometers wide lie _________ long dunes __________ crests 20 meters high. A. up to / between / with B. up with / for / to C. to up / from / for D.up to/ at/to Question 15. He acted in an extremely__________ manner, which made him very unpopular. A. dictatorial B. dictate C. dictation D. dictatorship Question 16. Have they __________ the "No Smoking" sign? A. caught sight of B. taken care of C. put an end to D. made fun of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 17. Daisy: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” - Mary: “_______” A. Thank you very much! I am afraid. B. You are telling a lie. C. Thank you for your compliment! D. I don't like your sayings. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 18. Dick: “Sorry, Brian is not here.” - Peter: “_________” A. Would you like to leave a message? B. Can I take a message then? C. Can I speak to Brian, please? D. Can I leave a message then? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheets to indicate the word (s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions. Question 19. By the end of the storm, the hikers had depleted even their emergency stores. A. greatly dropped B. lost C. destroyed D. used almost all of Question 20. Originally the builders have me a price of $5,000, but now they say they underestimated it, and now it’s going to be at least $8,000. A. misjudged B. underrated C. undervalued D. outnumbered Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the blanks. School exams are, generally speaking, the first kind of test we take. They find out how much knowledge we have gained. But do they really show how intelligent we are? After all, isn’t it a fact that some people who are very academically successful don’t have any common sense. Intelligence is the speed ___(21)_____ which we can understand and react to new situations and it is usually tested by logic puzzles. Although scientist are now preparing ___(22)_____ computer technology that will be able to “read” our brains, for the present tests are still the most popular ways of measuring intelligence. A person’s IQ is their intelligence as it is measured by a special test. The most common IT tests are ___(23)_____ by Mensa, an organization that was found in England in 1946. By 1976, it had 1,300 members in Britain. Today there are 44,000 in Britain and 100,000 worldwide largely in the US. People taking the tests are judged in ___(24)_____ to an average score of 100, and those who score over 148 are entitled to join Mensa. This works out at 2 percent of the population. Anyone from the age of six can take tests. All the questions are straightforward and most people can answer them if allowed enough time. But that’s the problem; the whole ___(25)_____ of the test is that they’re against the clock. Question 21. A. to B. on C. at D. in Question 22. A. ahead B. upper C. forward D. advanced Question 23. A. steered B. commanded C. run D. appointed Question 24. A. relation B. regard C. association D. concern Question 25. A. reason B. question C. matter D. point Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions At 7 pm on a dark, cold November evening, thousands of people are making their way across a vast car park. They're not here to see a film, or the ballet, or even the circus. They are all here for what is, bizarrely, a global phenomenon: they are here to see Holiday on Ice. Given that most people don’t seem to be acquainted with anyone who's ever been, the show's statistics are extraordinary: nearly 300 million people have seen Holiday on Ice since it began in 1943; it is the most popular live entertainment in the world. But what does the production involve? And why are so many people prepared to spend their lives travelling round Europe in caravans in order to appear in it? It can't be glamorous, and it's undoubtedly hard work. The backstage atmosphere is an odd mix of gym class and workplace. A curtained-off section at the back of the arena is laughably referred to as the girls' dressing room, but is more accurately described as a corridor, with beige, cracked walls and cheap temporary tables set up along the length of it. Each girl has a small area littered with pots of orange make-up, tubes of mascara and long false eyelashes. As a place to work, it must rank pretty low down the scale: the area round the ice-rink is grey and mucky with rows of dirty blue and brown plastic seating and red carpet tiles. It's an unimpressive picture, but the show itself is an unquestionably vast, polished global enterprise: the lights come from a firm in Texas, the people who make the audio system are in California, but Montreal supplies the smoke effects; former British Olympic skater Robin Cousins is now creative director for the company and conducts a vast master class to make sure they're ready for the show's next performance. The next day, as the music blares out from the sound system, the case start to go through their routines under Cousins' direction. Cousins says, 'The aim is to make sure they're all still getting to exactly the right place on the ice at the right time - largely because the banks of lights in the ceiling are set to those places, and if the skaters are all half a metre out they'll be illuminating empty ice. Our challenge, ' he continues, 'is to produce something they can sell in a number of countries at the same time. My theory is that you take those things that people want to see and you give it to them, but not in the way they expect to see it. You try to twist it. And you have to find music that is challenging to the skaters, because they have to do it every night.' It may be a job which he took to pay the rent, but you can’t doubt his enthusiasm. 'They only place you'll see certain skating moves is an ice show,' he says, 'because you're not allowed to do them in competition. It's not in the rules. So the ice show word has things to offer which the competitive world just doesn't. Cousins knows what he's Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose talking about because he skated for the show himself when he stopped competing - he was financially unable to retire. He learnt the hard way that you can't put on an Olympic performance every night. I'd be thinking, these people have paid their money, now do your stuff, and I suddenly thought, "I really can't cope. I'm not enjoying it".' The solution, he realized, was to give 75 per cent every night, rather than striving for the sort of twice-a-year excellence which won him medals. To be honest, for those of us whose only experience of ice-skating is watching top-class Olympic skaters, some of the movements can look a bit amateurish, but then, who are we to judge? Equally, it's impossible not to be swept up in the whole thing; well, you'd have to try pretty hard not to enjoy it. Question 26. The writer describes the backstage area in order to show A. how much fun the cast have during their work B. how much preparation is needed for a performance C. the type of skater that the show attracts D. the conditions that the skaters put up with Question 27. The word blares out in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. seeps out B. sounds beautifully C. resounds loudly D. rings Question 28. What does the writer highlight about the show in the third paragraph? A. the difficulty of finding suitable equipment B. the need for a higher level of professional support C. the range of companies involved in the production D. the variety of places in which the show has been staged Question 29. The word them in paragraph 5 refers to A. skating moves B. skating competitions C. things that people want to see D. the skaters Question 30. For Robin Cousins, the key point when rehearsing skating routines is A. keeping in time with the music B. the skaters' positions on the ice C. the movement of the lights D. filling all available space on the ice Question 31. Cousins believes that he can meet the challenge of producing shows for different audiences A. by adapting movements to suit local tastes B. by presenting familiar material in an unexpected way C. by selecting music that local audiences will respond to D. by varying the routines each night Question 32. What is meant by 'the hard way'? A. through making a lot of errors B. through difficult personal experience C. by misunderstanding the expectations of others D. by over-estimating the ability of others Question 33. What conclusion does the writer draw about Holiday on Ice? A. It is hard to know who really enjoys it B. It requires as much skill as Olympic ice-skating C. It is more enjoyable to watch than formal ice-skating D. It is difficult to dislike it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Before the 1500’s, the western plains of North America were dominated by farmers. One group, the Mandans, lived in the upper Missouri River country, primarily in present – day North Dakota. They had large villages of houses built close together. The tight arrangement enabled the Mandans to protect themselves more easily from the attacks of others who might seek to obtain some of the food these highly capable farmers stored from one year to the next. The women had primary responsibility for the fields. They had to exercise considerable skill to produce the desired results, for their northern location meant fleeting growing seasons. Winter often lingered; autumn could be ushered in by severe frost. For good measure, during the spring and summer, drought, heat, hail, grasshoppers, and other frustrations might await the wary grower. Under such conditions, Mandan women had to grow maize capable of weathering adversity. They began as early as it appeared feasible to do so in the spring, clearing the land, using fire to clear stubble from the fields and then planting. From this point until the first green corn could be harvested, the crop required labor and vigilance. Harvesting proceeded in two stages. In August the Mandans picked a smaller amount of the crop before it had matured fully. This green corn was boiled, dried and shelled, with some of the maize slated for immediate consumption and the rest stored in animal – skin bags. Later in the fall, the people picked the rest of the corn. They saved the best of the harvest for seeds or for trade, with the remainder eaten right away or stored for alter use in Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose underground reserves. With appropriate banking of the extra food, the Mandans protected themselves against the disaster of crop failure and accompany hunger. The woman planted another staple, squash, about the first of June, and harvested it near the time of the green corn harvest. After they picked it, they sliced it, dried it, and strung the slices before they stored them. Once again, they saved the seeds from the best of the year’s crop. The Mandans also grew sunflowers and tobacco; the latter was the particular task of the older men. Question 34. What is the main topic of the passage ? A. The agricultural activities of a North American Society B. Various ways corn can be used. C. The problems encountered by farmers specializing in growing once crop D. Weather conditions on the western plains. Question 35. The Mandans built their houses close together in order to ____________. A. share farming implements B. guard their supplies of food C. protect themselves against the weather D. allow more room for growing corn Question 36. Why does the author believe that the Mandans were skilled farmers? A. They developed new varieties of corn. B. They could grow crops despite adverse weather. C. They developed effective fertilizers. D. They could grow crops in most types of soil. Question 37. Which of the following processes does the author imply was done by both men and women? A. clearing fields B. Harvesting corn C. Harvesting squash D. Planting corn Question 38. The word “disaster” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________. A. catastrophe B. history. C. control D. avoidance Question 39. The word “them” in the last paragraph refers to _________. A. women B. seeds C. slices D. the Mandans Question 40. Throughout the passage, the author implies that the Mandans _________. A. valued individuality B. were very adventurous C. were open to strangers D. planned for the future Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 41. Economists have tried to discourage the use of the phrase “underdeveloped nation and encouraging the more accurate phase “developing nation” in order to suggest an ongoing process. Question 42. Being the biggest expanse of brackish water in the world, the Baltic Sea is of special interesting to scientists. Question 43. It is time the government helped the unemployment to find some jobs. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions Question 44. Why are you being so arrogant? A. humble B. cunning C. naive D. snooty Question 45. Strongly advocating health foods, Jane doesn’t eat any chocolate. A. denying B. impugning C. supporting D. advising Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46 Nobody is helping me, so I can’t finish my science project on time. A. I could finish my science project on time if I were being helped by someone. B. I needed help with my science project, but everyone just ignored me. C. My science project will be difficult to do alone, so I should ask someone for help. D. No one had time to help me, so I couldn’t finish my science project on time. Question 47. Although they taste nearly the same, both Sprite and Mountain Dew are two separate citrus – flavoured soft drinks made by different companies. A. Although Sprite has a stronger citrus taste than Mountain Dew, basically they are the same soft drink, though made by different companies. B. Sprite and Mountain Dew are both manufactured by the same company, though they are similarly tasting citrus – flavoured soft drinks. C. Produced by two different companies, Sprite and Mountain Dew, which are both citrus – flavoured soft drinks, taste practically no different. D. Not made by the same company, Sprite and Mountain Dew are different from one another in the amount of their citrus flavouring. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions Question 48. I had no idea Clark spoke French until we went to Bordeaux. A. I first realized that Clark knew French when we were in Bordeaux. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose B. Before we went to Bordeaux, Clark had never tried to speak French. C. While we were traveling to Bordeaux, Clark suddenly started to speak French. D. It was difficult to understand the French that Clark was speaking in Bordeaux. Question 49. One of the things I hate is noisy children. A. I hate being in a place where there are noisy kids. B. Children who make a lot of noise are terrible. C. Among other things, I can’t stand children who make noise. D. I hate both children and the noise they make. Question 50. People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much. A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much. B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed. C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable. D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 91 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. hidden B. minor C. written D. kitten Question 2. A. studio B study C. stupid D. student Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. attractive B. sociable C. dynamic D. conservative Question 4. A. entertain B. enjoyable C. anniversary D. introduce Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Adult humans have more than a trillion cells in his bodies. A B C D Question 6. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness. A B C D Question 7. A ten-thousand-dollars reward was offered for the capture of the escaped prisoner. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. The popular press often contains a lot more____________ than hard facts. A. speculation B. realism C. influence D. tolerance Question 9. Only in the Civil War____________ killed or wounded. A. soldiers in America B. were so many American soldiers C. many in America D. so many American soldiers were Question 10. Susan was sad because she wasn’t invited to any social events. She felt ____________ A. left out B. turned out C. omitted out D. gone out Question 11. The equipment in our office needs____________ A. moderner B. modernizing C. modernized D. modernization Question 12. I’ve been working ____________ quite a lot of pressure lately. A. in B. with C. on D. under Question 13. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us. A. yet B. so C. for D. and Question 14. He gave me his personal____________ that his draft would be ready by Friday. A. endurance B. insurance C. assurance D. ensurance Question 15. Several of my friends are ____________ reporters. A. newspaper B. newspapers C. newspaper’s D. newspapers’ Question 16. We have had the roof of our house _________. A. to replace B. replace C. replaced D. been replaced Question 17. He gave her a mischievous ____________ as she handed him his order. A. peer B. peep C. wink D. blink Question 18. No one died in the accident, ___________? A. didn’t they B. did he C. didn’t he D. did they Question 19. Because of cutbacks in council spending, plans for the new swimming pool had to be ___________. A. stockpiled B. overthrown C. shelved D. disrupted Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose following exchanges. Question 20. ‘Can I give you a little more coffee?’ ‘_______’. A. No, you’re welcome. B. Yes, you’re right. C. No, thank you. D. Yes, I’m Ok. Question 21. This suitcase s really heavy, and my back is killing me!’ ‘_______’. A. I sometimes have a backache. B. Oh, thanks for your help. C. It’s very good of you to do that. D. Shall I carry it? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The computer was experiencing an internal problem. A. international B. inner C. outside D. lasting forever Question 23. His job was to splice electrical wires inside houses. A. destroy B. remove C. connect D. buy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch, so we should take advantage of it. A. destroy B. break C. hold D. miss Question 25. I need everybody's help. The wedding is tomorrow and we haven't even started with the decorations yet. We have no time to lose. A. a long time B. almost no time C. very little time D. a lot of time to spare Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. Be he rich or poor, she will marry him. A. She doesn’t want to marry him because he is poor. B. She wants to marry him if he is rich. C. She will marry him whether he is rich or poor. D. She will marry him however poor he may be. Question 27. When I met my long-lost brother, I was at a loss for words. A. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say. B. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say. C. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything. D. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say. Question 28. Donald could not help weeping when he heard the bad news. A. Donald could not stop himself from weeping at the bad news. B. Donald could not allow himself to weep at the bad news. C. Donald could not help himself and so he wept. D. Donald could not help himself because he was weeping. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. He cannot lend me the book now. He has not finished reading it yet. A. As long as he cannot finish reading the book, he will lend it to me. B. Having finished reading the book, he cannot lend it to me. C. He cannot lend me the book until he has finished reading it. D. Not having finished reading the book, he will lend it to me. Question 30. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution. A. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that prestigious institution. B. His academic record at high school was poor because he didn’t apply to that prestigious institution. C. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor. D. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious institution. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. The elementary means of communicating with other people is (31) ____ messages by voice. This fact is widely acknowledged and we recognize the voice as a feature characterizing the identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as no two are exactly similar. They can be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in accordance with the individual physical (32) _____ of the throat One possible implementation of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts as a method of (33) ____ court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with recorded interviews or casual utterances are put to the purpose to help identity the probable culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can give themselves away by their accents, infections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A recorded sample is usually (34) _____ into electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a stab at deciphering the Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose relevant information which may be mingled with background noise or other interfering sounds until they attain the desired results. Thankfully, these efforts help the police detect individuals who threaten their victim by phone or inform about bomb planting or those who make offensive calls (35) _____ the peace of decent citizens. Question 31. A. commuting B. conveying C. discharging D. informing Question 32. A. tendencies B. credentials C. assets D. properties Question 33. A. substantiating B. facilitating C. pledging D. withstanding Question 34. A. reformed B. exchanged C. adjusted D. converted Question 35. A. distracting B. dismantling C. disturbing D. dispersing Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Even with his diverse experience as an elected official at the state level, Andrew Johnson was the first president of the United States ever to be impeached, primarily because of his violent temper and unyielding stubbornness. His career started in 1828 with his collection to the city council of Greenville, Tennessee, and after two years as an alderman, he took office as mayor. His advancements followed in rapid succession when he was elected to the Tennessee state senate, then as the state governor, and later to the U.S. House of Representatives for five consecutive terms. In 1864, Johnson ran for the office of vice-president on the Lincoln- Johnson ticket and was inaugurated in 1865. After Lincoln’s assassination six weeks into his term, Johnson found himself president at a time when southern leaders were concerned about their forced alliance with the northern states and feared retaliation for their support of the secession. Instead, however, with the diplomatic skill he had learned from Lincoln, Johnson offered full pardon to almost all Confederates on the condition that they take an oath of allegiance. He further reorganized the former Confederate states and set up legislative elections. Congressional opposition to his peace- making policies resulted in gridlock between the House and Johnson, and the stalemate grew into an open conflict on the issue of the emancipation of slaves. While Johnson held the view that newly freed slaves lacked understanding and knowledge of civil liberties to vote intelligently, Congress overrode Johnson’s veto of the Civil Rights Bill, which awarded them citizenship and ratified the Fourteenth Amendment. In the years that followed, Congress passed bills depriving the president of the power to pardon political criminals, stripping away his status of commander-in-chief, and taking away Johnson’s right to dismiss civil and executive officers from their duties. Johnson vetoed each bill, and each veto was overridden. When Johnson dismissedvthe secretary of war, Edwin Stanton, Stanton refused to step down and was supported by the House of Representatives, which voted to impeach Johnson. At the trial, the Senate came one vote short of the two-thirds majority necessary to remove him from office. After Johnson’s term expired, he returned to his home state, but in 1875 he was elected senator and went back to Washington to take his seat. Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Andrew Johnson’s career as a politician B. Congressional decisions in the late 1800s C. Andrew Johnson’s personal characteristics D. Congressional decisions and procedures in the late 1800s Question 37. What can be inferred from the first paragraph about Andrew Johnson’s work in Tennessee? A. He was represented to the posts five times.B. His personality precluded him from important positions. C. His work became known to the governor. D. He was elected to several important posts. Question 38. According to the passage, what led to Johnson’s downfall? A. His personal characteristics B. His waffling and hesitation C. The state of the nation’s economy D. His liberal position on slavery Question 39. The author of the passage implies that when Johnson became president he A. had already experienced political turmoil B. was a dedicated supporter of civil rights C. was a soft-spoken and careful diplomat D. had an extensive background in politics Question 40. According to the passage, Congress’s disapproval of Andrew Johnson’s policies was A. directed at his civic duties B. short-lived and groundless C. detrimental to his presidency D. stopped as soon as it emerged Question 41. In line 21, the word “pardon” is closest in meaning to A. exonerate B. parade C. patronize D. extricate Question 42. According to the passage, the attempt to impeach Andrew Johnson A. overwhelmed his supporters in Tennessee B. succeeded as expected by the House C. failed by a minimal margin D. put an end to his political career Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are just labels. Few films are exclusively Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an important difference between realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a particular type, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and formalistic. Virtually, all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what they do with this material- how they shape and manipulate it- determines their stylistic emphasis. Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the Filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short, to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror the actual world. Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real thing. We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. The filmmakers are more concerned with what is being shown than how it is manipulated. The camera is used conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that produces the surface of tangible objects with as little commentary as possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. It is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in art that conceals art. Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Styles of filmmaking B. Filmmaking 100 years ago C. Acting styles D. Film plots Question 44. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree? A. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic. B. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones. C. Realism and formalism are outdated terms. D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones. Question 45. The phrase "this distinction" in the first paragraph refers to the difference between A. general and absolute B. physical reality and raw materials C. formalists and realists D. realism and reality Question 46. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for a style of film? A. The producer B. The camera operator C. The director D. The actors Question 47. The word "Copiousness" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to A. abundance B. greatness C. fullness D. variety Question 48. How can one recognize the formalist style? A. it mirrors the actual world. B. it obviously manipulated images. C. it uses familiar images. D. it is very impersonal. Question 49. The word "tangible" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. various B. comprehensible C. concrete D. complex Question 50. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style? A. A musical drama B. An animated cartoon C. A science fiction film D. A travel documentary PRACTICE TEST 92 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. vertical B. water C. vulnerable D. wilderness Question 2: A. succeed B. accept C. account D. accident Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress Question 3: A. information B. decoration C. considerate D. confidential Question 4:A. ensure B. result C. museum D. follow Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 5: A paragraph is a portion of text consists of some sentences related to the same idea A. A paragraph B. a portion C. consists of D. related to Question 6: The measurement unit known as a “foot” has originally based on the size of the human foot A. measurement B. has C. size D. foot Question 7: Many animals have become extinction due to the interference of human beings A. have B. extinction C. due to D. human beings Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions Question 8: This is ___ the most challenging task I have ever done A. by far B. by all means C. by the way D. by rights Question 9: Not only ____ in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. is studied human behavior B. human behavior C. is human behavior studied D. human behavior studied Question 10: The capacity for growth is inherent ____ all people A. from B. in C. at D. on Question 11: Jane installed security software on her new computer to ________ it against viruses. A. protect B. protector C. protection D. protective Question 12: I used my calculator; otherwise it _____ longer A. will take B. would take C. took D. would have taken Question 13: ________ say that property taxes have increased faster than homeowner’s incomes. A. Analyze B. Analysts C. Analysis D. Analyzable Question 14: These days almost everybody _____ the dangers of smoking A. is aware about B. know of C. is aware of D. are aware of Question 15: Many difficulties have ___ as a result of the changeover to a new type of fuel A. raised B. been raised C. risen D. arisen Question 16: His aunt bought him some books on astronomy and football, ____ he had interest in A. neither of whom B. neither of which C. neither of what D. neither of them Question 17: There are a few things I didn’t like about Professor Chung’s math class, but ____ I enjoyed it A. large and by B. by and large C. big and large D. far and large Question 18: What he says makes no _______ to me A. reason B. truth C. sense D. matter Question 19: You ____ to our conversation. It was private A. haven’t been listening B. shouldn’t have been listening C. couldn’t have been listening D. hadn’t been listening Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to each of the following questions. Question 20: “_______” “Oh, but it’s boring” A. Would you prefer news to films? B. I often watch the news at night C. Don’t you like the news D. I think you should watch the news Question 21: “Thanks a lot for you help” “______” A. Don’t mention it B. Oh, that’s too bad C. Oh, I’m sorry to hear that D. Of course Mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSET in meaning to the underlined part Question 22: This is a difficult topic. Please explain it in plain language A. easy B. new C. different D. detailed Question 23: He claimed that the car belonged to him A. knew B. thought C. suspected D. declared Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 24: The use of lasers in surgery has become relatively commonplace in recent years. A. absolutely B. relevantly C. virtually D. comparatively Question 25: A deficiency of vitamin D can lead to permanent bone deformities. A. irreparable B. infinite C. temporary D. occasional Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Because geologists have long indicated that fossil fuels will not last indefinitely, the U.S government finally acknowledged that sooner or later other energy sources would be needed and, as a result, turned its attention to nuclear power. It was anticipated that nuclear power plants could supply electricity in such large amounts and so inexpensively that they would be integrated into an economy in which electricity would take over virtually all fuelgenerating functions at nominal cost. Thus, the government subsidized the promotion of commercial nuclear power plants and authorized their construction by utility companies. In the 1960s and early 1970s, the public accepted the notion of electricity being generated by nuclear power plants in or near residential areas. By 1975, 54 plants were fully operational, supplying 11 percent of the nation’s electricity, and another 167 plants were at various stages of planning and construction. Officials estimated that by 1990 hundreds of plants would be on line, and by the turn of the century as many as 1000 plants would be in working order. Since 1975, this outlook and this estimation have changed drastically, and many utilizes have cancelled existing orders. In some cases, construction was terminated even after billions of dollars had already been invested. After being completed and licensed at a cost of almost $6 billion, the Shoreham Power Plant on Long Island was turned over to the state of New York to be dismantled without ever having generated electric power. The reason was that residents and state authorities deemed that there was no possibility of evacuating residents from the area should an accident occur. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Just 68 of those plants under way in 1975 have been completed, and another 3 are still under construction. Therefore, it appears that in the mid1990s 124 nuclear power plants in the nation will be in operation, generating about 18 percent of the nation’s electricity, a figure that will undoubtedly decline as relatively outdated plants are shut down Question 26: What was initially planned for the nation’s fuel supply in the 1950s and in the early 1960s? A. Expansion and renovation of existing fuel-generating plants B. Creation of additional storage capacities for fossil fuels C. Conversion of the industry and the economy to nuclear power D. Development of an array of alternative fuel and power sources Question 27: How does the author describe the attitude of the population in regard to nuclear power as fuel in the early to the mid 1970s? A. Apprehensive B. Ambivalent C. Receptive D. Resentful Question 28: In line 5, the word “nominal” is closet in meaning to _____ A. so-called B. minimal C. exorbitant D. inflated Question 29: In line 7, the word “notion” is closet in meaning to _____ A. nonsense B. notice C. idea D. consequence Question 30: In line 13, the phrase “this outlook” refers to _____ A. the number of operating nuclear plants B. the expectation for increase in the number of nuclear plants C. the possibility of generating electricity at nuclear installations D. the forecast for the capacity of the nuclear plants Question 31: It can be inferred from the passage that government officials made a critical error in judgment by ____ A. disregarding the low utility of nuclear power plants B. relying on inferior materials and faulty plant design C. overlooking the possibility of a meltdown, however remote D. locating installation in densely wooded areas Question 32: In line 14, the word “terminated” is closet in meaning to ______ A. delayed B. stopped C. kept going D. conserved Question 33: The author of the passage implies that the construction of new nuclear power plants____ A. is continuing on a smaller scale B. is being geared for greater safety C. has been completely halted for fear of disaster D. has been decelerated but not terminated Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions According to some accounts, the first optical telescope was accidentally invented in the 1600s by children who put two glass lenses together while playing with them in a Dutch optical shop. The owner of the shop, Hans Lippershey, looked through the lenses and was amazed by the way they made the nearby church look so much larger. Soon after that, he invented a device that he called a “looker”, a long thin tube where light passed in a straight line from the front lens to the viewing lens at the other end of the tube. In 1608 he tried to sell his invention unsuccessfully. In the same year, someone described the “looker” to the Italian scientists Galileo, who made his own version of the device. In 1610 Galileo used his version to make observations of the Moon, the planet Jupiter, and the Milky Way. In April of 1611, Galileo showed his device to guests at a banquet in his honor. One of guests suggested a name for the device: telescope When Isaac Newton began using Galileo’s telescope more than a century later, he noticed a problem. The type of telescope that Galileo designed is called a refractor because the front lens bends, or refracts, the light. However, the curved front lens also caused the light to the separated into colors. This meant that when Newton looked through the refracting telescope, the images of bright objects appeared with a ring of colors around them. This sometimes interfered with viewing. He solved this problem by designing a new type of telescope that used a curved mirror. This mirror concentrated the light and reflected a beam of light to the eyepiece at the other end of the telescope. Because Newton used a mirror, his telescope was called a reflector Very much larger optical telescopes can now be found in many parts of the world, built on hills and mountains far from city lights. The world’s largest refracting telescope is located at the Yerkes Observatory in Williams Bay, Wisconsin. Another telescope stands on Mount Palomar in California. This huge reflecting telescope was for many years the largest reflecting telescope in the world until an even larger reflecting telescope was built in the Caucasus Mountains. A fourth famous reflector telescope, the Keck Telescope situated on a mountain in Hawaii, does not use a single large mirror to collect the light. Instead, the Keck uses the combined light that falls on thirty-six mirrors Radio telescopes, like optical telescopes allow astronomers to collect data from outer space, but they are different in important ways. First of all, they look very different because instead of light waves, they collect radio waves. Thus, in the place of lenses or mirror, radio telescopes employ bowl-shaped disks that resemble huge TV Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose satellite dished. Also, apart from their distinctive appearance, radio telescope and optical telescopes use different methods to record the information they collect. Optical telescopes use cameras to take photographs of visible objects, while radio telescopes use radio receivers to record radio waves from distant object in space Question 34: What can be inferred about the first optical telescope? A. It was bought by children B. It was invented in America C. It was sold by a shop owner D. It was invented by accident Question 35: Which of the following is NOT true about Hans Lippershey? A. He owned a shop B. He was a Dutch C. He sold his invention in 1608 D. He got his idea of a telescope from the kids in his shop Question 36: When was Galileo’s invention called “telescope”? A. in 1611 B. in 1610 C. in 1608 D. in 1600 Question 37: What did Newton notice about Galileo’s telescope when he used it? A. It had many problems B. It refracted the light C. It was called a refractor D. It had a curved mirror Question 38: What did Newton do with Galileo’s telescope? A. He called it reflector B. He sent it back to Galileo C. He improved it D. He stopped using it after his notice Question 39: When did Newton start to use Galileo’s telescope? A. in the 17th century B. in the 18th century C. in the 16th century D. in the 15th century Question 40: Where does the largest reflecting telescope stand? A. in Wisconsin B. in California C. in Hawaii D. in Caucasus Mountains Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D on our answer sheet to indicate the correct word (s) for each of the blanks Reading is Fun More and more people are discovering that sharing and talking about their favorite books with others can be as rewarding as the act of reading itself. For people who feel that they are too busy to sit down with a book, a book club helps them schedule time to read, others have gained self-confidence by (41)____ in or leading a discussion. And most people enjoy the chance to (42)_____ new friends A successful book club should have a group that is small enough so even the quiet people can be heard but also big enough for many different opinions. The best arrangement is a (43)____ of ages, sexes, and backgrounds for more reading variety and livelier discussions The book club could (44)_____ in one subject or type of book, like mysteries, science fiction, or biographies. Or the members could read books of all types, as long as the book is highly recommended by someone who thinks it would be (45)____ discussing Some book clubs meet in places like bookstores, public libraries, or restaurants, but most have their meetings in members’ homes. The approach simply offers more privacy and time for longer meetings. To make the meeting go smoothly, a leader should be appointed. The leader will usually start the discussion by asking what the author’s main idea was. Book club members should never be afraid to offer their opinions, even if they don’t like a book. They just need to be prepared to explain why. Question 41: A. sitting B. talking C. participating D. taking Question 42:A. do B. form C. gather D. make Question 43:A. mixture B. lot C. range D. number Question 44:A. talk B. focus C. concentrate D. specialize Question 45: A. worth B. useful C. valuable D. busy Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: We could not handle the situation without you. A. You didn't help us handle the situation. B. If you had not helped us, we could not have handled the situation. C. If you did not help us, we could not handle the situation. D. We will handle the situation if you help. Question 47: Apples are usually cheaper than oranges. A. Oranges are usually the most expensive. B. Oranges are usually more expensive as apples. C. Apples are not usually as expensive as oranges. D. Apples are usually less cheap than oranges. Question 48: We do not need much furniture because the room is small. A. The smaller the room is, the less furniture we need. B. The smaller the room, the fewer furniture we need. C. The small room makes the furniture less and less. D. Much furniture is needed for a small room. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I am not sure, but perhaps he went to London. A. He might go to London. B. He must have gone to London. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. He might have gone to London. D. He could go to London. Question 50: He is a reliable person, which is different from what people think. A. People think differently about the reliable person. B. Contrary to what people think, he is reliable. C. Contrary to what people think, he is unreliable. D. He, who is reliable, is not what people think. PRACTICE TEST 93 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. raised B. talked C. watched D. laughed Question 2. A. women B. bench C. lend D. spend Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. memorable B. experience C. selfish D. confidence Question 4. A. intelligent B. comfortable C. necessary D. secretary Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. A prism is used to refract light so as it spreads out in a continuous spectrum of colors. A B C D Question 6. There are more potatoes cultivated than any the other vegetable crop worldwide. A B C D Question 7. Not one in a hundred seeds develop into a healthy plant, even under laboratory conditions. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. She loves London, ____________ in the spring. A. mostly B. especially C. most D. specially Question 9. Make sure you end each sentence with a ____________ A. dot B. point C. comma D. full stop Question 10. They travelled to the capital city of Scotland by the most ____________ route. A. easy B. direct C. straight D. unique Question 11. Hillary Clinton failed in the election just because he ____________ his opponent. A. overestimated B. underestimated C. understated D. undercharged Question 12. What a ____! A. new small nice car B. nice small new car C. new nice car, that is small D. car new nice and small Question 13. His parents’ hostile attitude ___ him to leave home . A. drove B. urged C. made D. suggested Question 14. I recommend that the student ____ his composition as soon as possible. A. finishes writing B. should finish the writing C. finish writing D. finished writing Question 15. Up ____, and the people cheered. A. went the balloon B. does the balloon go C. did the balloon go D. goes the balloon Question 16. Do you need to give your speech another____________ or do you already know it by heart? A. break-down B. check-up C. run-through D. mix-up Question 17. It may be wonderful to own a big, old house, but think of the ___. A. upkeep B. keep-up C. keep-on D. keep-out Question 18. _____ begin their existence as ice crystals over most of the earth seems likely. A. Raindrops B. If raindrops C. That raindrops D. What if raindrops Question 19. Everyone in our family says best wishes to ____________ in the early morning of the first day of the New Year. A. ourselves B. themselves C. one another D. the others Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. - Can I get you another drink? → “___________”. A. Forget it B. No, it isn’t C. No, I’ll think it over D. Not just now Question 21. → “___________”. - Never mind! A. Thank you for being honest to me B. Would you mind going out for dinner next Saturday? C. Congratulations! How wonderful! D. Sorry for staining your carpet. Let me have it cleaned Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The impact of the tidal wave on the coastal people was terrible. A. time B. cost C. effect D. use Question 23. If you look at the watch, you can tell it is exotic. A. sharp B. normal C. original D. unusual Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. The government is not prepared to tolerate this situation any longer. A. look down on B. put up with C. take away from D. give on to Question 25. I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer. A. unplanned B. deliberate C. accidental D. unintentional Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. He makes a better husband than father. A. Fathers are usually good husbands. B. He is more successful as a husband than as a father. C. His father is better than her husband. D. He tries to be a good husband and father. Question27. “If I were you, I’d rather go by train than by bus.’’ A. She said that if she had been me, she would have gone by train than by bus. B. She advised me to go by train rather than by bus. C. She meant going by train was more interesting than going by bus. D. Wherever she went, she always travelled by train. Question 28. The more money Dane makes, the more his wife spends. A. Dane spends more money than his wife. B. Dane and his wife both make money. C. Dane spends the money his wife makes. D. Dane's wife keeps spending more money. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. He behaved in a very strange way. That surprised me a lot. A. What almost surprised me was the strange way he behaved. B. He behaved very strangely, which surprised me very much. C. His behaviour was a very strange thing, that surprised me most. D. I was almost not surprised by his strange behaviour. Question 30. Smoking is an extremely harmful habit. You should give it up immediately. A. When you give up smoking immediately, you will affect your health with this harmful habit. B. Stop your smoking immediately so it will become one of your extremely harmful habits. C. You should give up smoking immediately and you will fall into an extremely harmful habit. D. As smoking is an extremely harmful habit, you should give it up immediately. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Everyone has got two personalities - the one that is shown to the world and the other that is secret and real. You don’t show your secret personality when you are (31) _____ because you can control yourself. But when you are asleep, your feeling position shows the real you. In a normal (32) _____, of course, people often change their positions. The important position is the one you go to sleep in. If you go to sleep on your back, you are a very open person. You usually believe people and you accept new things or new ideas easily. You don’t like to make people sad, so you never express your (33) _____ feeling. You are quite shy. If you sleep on your stomach, you are a rather secretive person. You worry a lot and you always easily become sad. You usually live for today not tomorrow. This means that you (34) _____having a good time. If you sleep curled up, you are probably a very nervous person. You have a low opinion of yourself. You are shy and don’t like meeting people. You (35) _____to be on your own. You are easily hurt. Question 31. A. awake B. active C. happy D. honest Question 32. A. room B. bed C. night D. body Question 33. A. real B. lonely C. cheerful D. gentle Question 34. A. regret B. enjoy C. mind D. deny Question 35. A. pretend B. oppose C. refuse D. prefer Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 44. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose The modem comic strip started out as ammunition in a newspaper was between giants of the American press in the late nineteenth century. The first full-color comic strip appeared in January 1894 in the New York World, owned by Joseph Pulitzer. The first regular weekly full-color comic supplement, similar to today's Sunday funnies, appeared two years later, in William Randolph Hearst's rival New York paper, the Morning Journal. Both were immensely popular, and publishers realized that supplementing the news with comic relief boosted the sale of papers. The Morning Journal started another feature in 1896, the "Yellow Kid," the first continuous comic character in the United States, whose creator, Richard Outcault, had been lured away from the World by the ambitious Hearst. The "Yellow Kid" was in many ways a pioneer. Its comic dialogue was the strictly urban farce that came to characterize later strips, and it introduced the speech balloon inside the strip, usually placed above the characters' heads. The first strip to incorporate all the elements of later comics was Rudolph Dirks's "Katzenjammer Kids", based on Wilhelm Busch's Max and Moritz, a European satire of the nineteenth century. The "Kids" strip, first published in 1897, served as the prototype for future American strips. It contained not only speech balloons, but a continuous cast of characters, and was divided into small regular panels that did away with the larger panoramic scenes of the earliest comics. Newspaper syndication played a major role in spreading the popularity of comic strips throughout the country. Though weekly colored comics came first, daily black-and-white strips were not far behind. They first appeared in the Chicago American in 1904. It was followed by many imitators, and by 1915 black-and-white comic strips had become a staple of daily newspaper; around the country. Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A comparison of two popular comic strips B. The differences between early and modern comic strips C. The effects of newspapers on comic strip stories D. Features of early comic strips in the United States Question 37. Why does the author mention Joseph Pulitzer and William Randolph Hearst? A. They established New York's first newspaper. B. They published comic strips about the newspaper war. C. Their comic strips are still published today. D. They owned major competitive newspapers. Question 38. The passage suggests that comic strips were popular for which of the following reasons? A. They provided a break from serious news stories. B. Readers enjoyed the unusual drawings. C. Readers could identify with the characters. D. They were about real-life situations. Question 39. To say that Richard Outcault had been "lured away from the World” by Hearst (line 7) means which of the following? A. Hearst convinced Outcault to leave the World. B. Hearst fired Outcault from the World. C. Hearst warned Outcault to leave the World. D. Hearst wanted Outcault to work for the World. Question 40. The word “it” in line 9 refers to . A. The “Yellow Kid” B. dialogue C. farce D. balloon Question 41. According to the passage, the “Yellow Kid” was the first ______________ comic strip to do all of the following EXCEPT . A. feature the same character in each episode B. include dialogue inside a balloon C. appear in a Chicago newspaper D. characterize city life in a humorous way Question 42. The word "incorporate" in line 11 is closest in meaning to . A. affect B. create C. combine D. mention Question 43. The word "prototype" in line 13 is closest in meaning to . A. story B. humor C. drawing D. model Question 44. In what order does the author discuss various comic strips in the passage? A. In alphabetical order by title B. In the order in which they were created C. According to the newspaper in which they appeared D. From most popular to least popular Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 50. The Atmosphere of Venus Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere. The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping. While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun. However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. Studies show that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today.Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions. Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slowmoving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface. In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the crushing air pressure. Question 45. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors Question 46. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density Question 47. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus. B. If a man could survive its surface pressure. C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth. D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans. Question 48. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to A. the small amounts of nitrogen B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide C. growing plants D. the high atmospheric temperatures Question 49. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions Question 50. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. Desecration PRACTICE TEST 94 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. money B. story C. morning D. sorry Question 2. A. situation B. story C. sugar D. sand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. expression B. decisive C. dependent D. independent Question 4. A. decision B. reference C. refusal D. important Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they A B would have realized that the second was better as the first. C D Question 6. It is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order A B C to assure a successful cure. D Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 7. The old and the new in transportation also contrast sharply in Middle East. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. The schoolboy’s excuse wasn’t ____________ at all. Nobody in the classroom believed in the farfetched story he told. A. credential B. credible C. creditable D. credulous. Question 9. The bad weather and a lack of food simply ____________ our problem A. compounded B. enhanced C. salvaged D. transformed Question 10. In most____________ developed countries, up to 50% of ____________ population enters higher education at some time in their lives. A. Ø / Ø B. the / Ø C. Ø / the D. the / a Question 11. I wish you____________ me a new one instead of having it____________ as you did. A. would give / to repair B. gave / to repair C. had given / to be repaired D. had given / repaired Question 12. I must congratulate you. You’ve ____________ a very good job. A. done B. made C. finished D. worked Question 13. For ____________ reason is this meeting being held? A. what B. why C. how D. who Question 14. ____________ the invention of the steam engine, most forms of transport were horse-drawn. A. With reference B. Akin C. Prior to D. In addition to Question 15. No sooner ____________ to marry Jack ____________ to have serious doubts. A. had Carol agreed / than she began B. Carol has agreed / than she began C. had Carol agreed / than she begins D. had Carol agreed / than she had begun Question 16. The doctor _____ all night with the patients in the hospital. A. sat out B. sat up C. sat in D. sat on Question 17. You'd better not place a bet on Stallion. In my opinion, the horse doesn't _____ a chance of winning the race.A. win B. stand C. rise D. play Question 18. Having been served dinner, ____________ A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee. B. the committee members discussed the problem. C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem. D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee. Question 19. The marathon runner ____________ for nearly one hour and a half when she____________ to the pavement. A. has been running / collapses B. were running / collapsed C. had been running / collapsed D. ran / had been collapsing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. ‘‘I’m not sure what to do this evening. Any ideas?’’ ‘‘_______________________’’. A. Why don’t we go to the cinema? B. You will go to the cinema, perhaps? C. Do you go to the cinema? D. Why shouldn’t we go to the cinema? Question 21. ‘‘Do you know how to start this computer?’’ ‘‘_______________________’’. A. Just press the green button. B. These computers are good. C. Sure, go ahead. D. You know, yeah. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The decline of the African elephant can be linked to poaching. A. decrease B. change C. growth D. limitation Question 23. Because of his hard work, he was able to recover his losses from the accident. A. find B. sell C. take back D. escape Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry. A. hopeless B. hopeful C. successful D. unsuccessful Question 25. A chronic lack of sleep may make us irritable and reduces our motivation to work. A. uncomfortable B. responsive C. calm D. miserable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 26. Some people will go any length to lose weight. A. Some people will do anything to lose weight. B. Some people haven’t lost any weight for a long time. C. Losing weight is a long way for some people. D. Some people find it hard to lose weight. Question 27. Much as I admire her achievements, I don’t really like her. A. I don’t really like her even though I admire her achievements. B. I don’t really like her because I don’t admire her achievements. C. Whatever her achievements, I don’t really like her. D. I like her achievements, so I admire her. Question 28. He can hardly understand this matter because he is too young. A. This matter is too hard to understand. B. Hardly can he understand this matter because he is too young. C. The matter is difficult but he can understand it. D. He is young but he can understand this matter. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. We’d better leave them a note. It’s possible they’ll arrive later. A. If they arrive late, we’d better leave them a note.B. We’d better leave them a note as they arrive late. C. They’ll probably arrive later so that we’d better leave them a note. D. We’d better leave them a note in case they arrive later. Question 30. Father has been working all day. He must be tired now. A. Father must work all day and is tired now. B. Father thinks he is tired now because he has been working all day. C. I’m sure that father is tired after working all day. D. I think father was tired after all day working. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. If you ask anyone who invented television, they will tell you that it was John Logie Baird. While Baird was, of course, extremely important in the history of television, it would be more accurate to see his role as part of a (31) _____ of events which finally led to television as we know it today. The history of television really begins in 1817 with the discovery by Berzelius, a Swedish chemist, of the chemical selenium. It was found that the amount of electric current that selenium could carry depended on how much light struck it. This discovery directly led to G. R. Carey, an American inventor, (32) _____ up with the first real television system in 1875. His system used selenium to transmit a picture along wires to a row of light bulbs. This picture was not very clear, however. Over the next few years, a number of scientists and inventors simplified and improved on Carey's system. It was not until1923 that Baird made the first practical transmission. Once again, the picture was (33) _____ through wires, but it was much clearer than Carey's had been almost fifty years before. The Second World War (34) _____the development of television. After the war, television sets began to flood the market, with the first mass TV audience watching the baseball World Series in the USA in 1947. Within a few years, television had captured the (35) _____ of the whole world. Question 31. A. connection B. cycle C. link D. chain Question 32. A. coming B. making C. going D. doing Question 33. A. pushed B. sent C. transported D. transferred Question 34. A. abandoned B. cancelled C. delayed D. waited Question 35. A. observation B. awareness C. notice D. attention Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Researchers in the field of psychology have found that one of the best ways to make an important decision, such as choosing a university to attend or a business to invest in, involves the utilization of a decision worksheet. Psychologists who study optimization compare the actual decisions made by people to theoretical ideal decisions to see how similar they are. Proponents of the worksheet procedure believe that it will yield optimal, that is, the nest decisions. Although there are several variations on the exact format that worksheets can take, they are all similar in their essential aspects. Worksheets require defining the problem in a clear and concise way and then listing all possible solutions to the problem. Next, the pertinent considerations that will be affected by each decision are listed, and the relative importance of each consideration or consequence is determined. Each consideration is assigned a numerical value to reflect its relative importance. A decision is mathematically calculated by adding these valued together. The alternative with the highest number of points emerges as the best decision. Since most important problems are multi-faceted, there are several alternatives to choose from, each with unique advantages and disadvantages. One of the benefits of a pencil and paper decision-making procedure is that it Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose permits people to deal with more variables than their minds can generally comprehend and remember. On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their mind at once. A worksheet can be especially useful when the decision involves a large number of variables with complex relationships. A. realistic example for many college students in the question "What will I do after graduation?. A graduate might seek a position that offers specialized training, purse an advanced degree, or travel abroad for a year. A decision-making worksheet begins with a succinct statement of the problem that will also help to narrow it. It is important to be clear about the distinction between long-range and immediate goals because long-range goals often involve a different decision than short-range ones. Focusing on long-range goals, a graduating student might revise the question above to "What will I do after graduation that will lead to a successful career?" Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. A comparison of actual decisions and ideal ones B. A tool to assist in making complex decisions C. Research on how people make decisions D. Differences between long-range and short-range decision making Question 37. The word "essential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. introductory B. changeable C. beneficial D. fundamental Question 38. According to decision-worksheet theory, an optimal decision is defined as one that A. is agreed to by the greatest number of people B. uses the most decision worksheet C. has the most points assigned to it D. is agreed to by the greatest number of worksheet Question 39. The author organizes paragraph 2 by A. describing a process C. providing historical background B. classifying types of worksheets D. explaining a theory Question 40. The word "succinct" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. creative B. satisfactory C. personal D. concise Question41.The author states that"On the average, people can keep about seven ideas in their mind at once"(paragraph 3) to explain that A. most decisions involve seven steps B. human mental capacity has limitations C. some people have difficulty making minor as well as major decisions D. people can learn to keep more than seven ideas in their minds with practice Question 42. The word "revise" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to A. ask B. explain C. change D. predict Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Orchids are unique in having the most highly developed of all blossoms, in which the usual male and female reproductive organs are fused in a single structure called the column. The column is designed so that a single pollination will fertilize hundreds or thousands, and in some cases millions, of seeds, so microscopic and light they are easily carried by the breeze. Surrounding the column are three sepals and three petals, sometimes easily recognizable as such, often distorted into gorgeous, weird, but always functional shapes. The most noticeable of the petals is called the labellum, or lip. It is often dramatically marked as an unmistakable landing strip to attract the specific insect the orchid has chosen as its pollinator. To lure their pollinators from afar, orchids use appropriately intriguing shapes, colors, and scents. At least 50 different aromatic compounds have been analyzed in the orchid family, each blended to attract one, or at most a few, species of insects or birds. Some orchids even change their scents to interest different insects at different times. Once the right insect has been attracted, some orchids present all sorts of one-way obstacle courses to make sure it does not leave until pollen has been accurately placed or removed. By such ingenious adaptations to specific pollinators, orchids have avoided the hazards of rampant crossbreeding in the wild, assuring the survival of species as discrete identities. At the same time they have made themselves irresistible to collectors. Question 43. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Birds B. Insects C. Flowers D. Perfume Question 44. The orchid is unique because of_________. A. the habitat in which it lives B. the structure of its blossom C. the variety of products that can bemade from it D. the length of its life Question 45. The word "fused" in line 2 is closest in meaning to. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. combined B. hidden C. fertilized D. produced Question 46. How many orchid seeds are typically pollinated at one time? A. 200 B. B. 2,000 C. 20,000 D. 200,000 Question 47. Which of the following is a kind of petal? A. The column B. The sepal C. The stem D. The labellum Question 48. The labellum (line 6) is most comparable to. A. a microscope B. an obstacle course C. an airport runway D. a racetrack Question 49. The word "their" in line 10 refers to. A. orchids B. birds C. insects D. species Question 50. The word "discrete" in line 13 is closest in meaning to. A. complicated B. separate C. inoffensive D. Functional THE END! PRACTICE TEST 95 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. examine B. determine C. airline D. vitamin Question 2. A. chief B. moustache C. machine D. chef Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to, indicate the word whose stress pattern differs from that of the others. Question 3. A. ostentatious B. controversial C. uncontrollable D. competitively Question 4. A. delicacy B. predominate C. testimony D. eloquence Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. A lot of people stop smoking because they are afraid their health will be affected and early death. A B C D Question 6. A novel is a story long enough to fill a complete book, in that the characters and events are usually imaginary. A B C D Question 7. Globally and internationally, the 1990's stood out as the warmest decade in the A B C history of weather records. D Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the right answer to each of the following sentences. Question 8. I am sorry I have no time at present to ……detail of our plan. A. bring in B. take into C. come in D. go into Question 9. Nowadays, with the help of the computer, teachers have developed a ______ approach to teaching. A. multilingual B. multilateral C. multiple-choice D. multimedia Question 10. ________ I might, I couldn’t open the door. A. However hard B. As try C. Try as D. No matter Question 11. Anna is holding her shopping bag with one hand and turning the door handle with ______. A. other B. another C. the other D. others Question 12. She passed the National High School Graduation Exam with ______ colours. A. bright B. flying C. red D. true Question 13. That cannot be a true story. He ______ it up. A. must have made B. should have made C. would have made D. can have made Question 14. My mother had to work 12 hours a day in a factory just to______. A. make ends meet B. call it a day C. tighten the belt D. break the ice Question 15. The language centre offers courses of various levels, such as elementary, intermediate and ______. A. advance B. advancement C. advanced D. advancing Question 16. Geometry is a branch of mathematics ______ the properties of lines, curves, shapes, and surfaces. A. that concerning with B. that concerned with C. that it is concerned with D. concerned with Question 17. Our industrial output________ from $2 million in 2002 to $4 million this year. A. rises B. has risen C. was rising D. rose Question 18. Education in many countries is compulsory ……. the age of 16. A. for B. when C. until D. forwards Question 19. We must push the piano to the comer of the hall to …….our party tonight. A. make place for B. take up room to C. make room for D. give place to Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each sentence. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 20. A good dictionary is indispensable for learning a foreign language. A. essential B. understandable C. remarkable D. unnecessary Question 21. Within hours of the tragedy happening, an emergency rescue team had been assembled. A. dismissed B. gathered C. restored D. congregated Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each sentence Question 22. Stay away from someone who always feels superior to you! A. friendly with B. better than C. worse than D. pity on Question 23. The neighbors' constant wrangles with each other shattered our tranquility. A. wrecks B. wraths C. quarrels D. conversations Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 24. Sarah: “Oh my God, I’ve missed my bus.” Christ: “_____. Another will come here in ten minutes.” A. Thank you B. Don’t mention it C. I hope so D. Don’t worry Question 25. Jack : “What’s wrong with you?” Jill: “______.” A. I’m having a slight headache B. No, I don’t care C. Yes, I was tired yesterday D. Thank you very much Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks. Wind, water, air, ice and heat all work to cause erosion. As the wind blows over the land, it often (26) _______ small grains of sand. When these grains of sand strike against solid rocks, the rocks are slowly worn away. In this way, even very hard rocks are worn away by the wind. When particles of rocks or soil became loosened in any way, running water carries them down the hillsides. Some rocks and soil particles are carried into streams and then into the sea. Land that is covered with trees, grass and other plants wears away very slowly, and so loses very (27) _______ of its soil. The roots of plants help to (28) _______ the rocks and soil in place. Water that falls on grasslands runs away more slowly than water that falls on bare ground. Thus, forests and grasslands help to slow down erosion. Even where the land is (29) _______ covered with plants, some erosion goes on. In the spring, the (30) _______ snow turns into a large quantity of water that then runs downhill in streams. As a stream carries away some of the soil, the stream bed gets deeper and deeper. After thousands of years of such erosion, wide valleys are often formed. Question 26. A. holds up B. cleans out C. carries out D. picks up Question 27. A. large B. little C. few D. much Question 28. A. store B. back C. stay D. hold Question 29. A. thinly B. strongly C. thickly D. scarcely Question 30. A. melted B. building C. melting D. formed Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the question. One of the factors contributing to the intense nature of twenty-first-century stress is our continual exposure to media – particularly to an overabundance of news. If you feel stressed out by the news, you are far from alone. Yet somehow many of us seem unable to prevent ourselves from tuning in to an extreme degree. The further back we go in human history, the longer news took to travel from place to place, and the less news we had of distant people and lands altogether. The printing press obviously changed all that, as did every subsequent development in transportation and telecommunication. When television came along, it proliferated like a poplulation of rabbits. In 1950, there were 100,000 television sets in North American homes; one year later there were more then a million. Today, it’s not unusual for a home to have three or more television sets, each with cable access to perhaps over a hundred channels. News is the subject of many of those channels, and on several of them it runs 24 hours a day. What’s more, after the traumatic events of Sptember 11, 2001, live newcasts were paired with perennial text crawls across the bottom of the screen – so that viewers could stay abreast of every story all the time. Needless to say, the news that is reported to us is not good news, but rather disturbing images and sound bytes alluding to diasater (natural and man-made), upheaval, crime, scandal, war, and the like. Compounding the proplem is that when actual breaking news is scarce, most broadcasts fill in with waistline, hairline, or very existence in the future. This variety of story tends to treat with equal alarm a potentially lethal flu outbreak and the bogus claims of a wrinkle cream that overpromises smooth skin. Are humans meant to be able to process so much trauma – not to mention so much overblown anticipation of potetial trauma – at once? The human brain, remember, is programmed to slip into alarm mode when danger looms. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Danger looms for someone, somewhere at every moment. Exposing ourslves to such input without respite and without perspective cannot be anything other than a source of chronic stress. (Extracted from The Complete Idiot’s Guide to Beating Stress by Arlene Matthew Uhl – Penguin Group 2006) Question 31. According to the passage, which of the following has contributed to the intense nature of twenty-firstcentury stress? A. An overabundance of special news B. The degree to which stress affects our life C. Our inability to control ourselves D. Our continual exposure to the media Question 32. In the past, we had less news of distant people and lands because ______. A. means of communication and transprotation were not yet invented. B. the printing press changed the situation to slowly C. printing, transportation, and telecommunications were not developed D. most people lived in distant towns and villages Question 33. The word “traumatic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. boring B. fascinating C. upsetting D. exciting Question 34. According to the passage, when there is not enough actual breaking news, broadcasts _________. A. are full of dangerous diseases such as flu. B. send out live newscasts paired with text across the screen C. send out frightening stories about potential dangers D. are forced to publicise an alarming increase in crime Question 35. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? A. The news that is reported to us is not good news.B. Many people are under stress caused by the media. C. Many TV channels supply the public with breaking news. D. The only source of stress in our modern life is the media. Question 36. The word “slip” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ______. A. release B. bring C. fail D. fall Question 37. According to the passage, our continual exposure to bad news without perspective is obviously ________. A. the result of human brain’s switch to alarm mode. B. a source of chronic stress. C. the result of an overabundance of good news. D. a source of defects in human brain. Question 38. What is probably the best title for this passage? A. Effective Ways to Beat Stress B. More Modern Life - More Stress C. The Media - A Major Cause of Stress D. Developments in Telecommunications Read-the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. THE SAVANNAH The tourist looking at the African savannah on a summer afternoon might be excused for thinking that the wide yellow grass plain was completely deserted of life, almost a desert. With only a few small thorn trees sticking out through the veldt, there seems to be almost no place for a living creature to hide. However, under those trees you might find small steenbok, sleeping in the shade, and waiting for the night to fall. There may even be a small group of lions somewhere, their bodies exactly the same shade as the tall grass around them. In the holes in the ground a host of tiny creatures, from rabbits and badgers to rats and' snakes are waiting for the heat to finish. The tall grass also hides the fact that there may be a small stream running across the middle of the plain. One clue that there may be water here is the sight of a majestic Marshall eagle circling slowly over the grassland. When he drops, he may come up with a small fish, or maybe a grass snake that has been waiting at the edge of a pool in the hope of catching a frog. The best time to see the animals then, is in the evening, just as the sun is setting. The best time of the year to come is in late September, or early August, just before the rains. Then the animals must come to the waterholes, as there is no other place for them to drink. And they like to come while it is still light; so they can see if any dangers are creeping up on them. So it is at sunset, and after the night falls, that the creatures of the African veld rise and go about their business. Question 39. The savannah appears to be empty because: A. The animals are sleeping B. The animals have gone about their business C. They have been frightened by an eagle D. The temperature prevents much activity Question 40. By "go about their business" the writer means: A. Tourism in Africa is big business B. The animals go to the river to drink C. The animals go on with their normal activity D. The animals are observed by naturalists Question 41. What kind of book does the text seem to be from? A. A book for experts on wildlife B. A fictional story C. A history of Africa D. General non-fiction Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 42. The phrase "be excused for" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to A. easily make a mistake of B. feel sorry for C. be regretting for D. be actually forgiven for Question 43. The phrase "a host of" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to A. a large number of B. only a few C. a group of D. a gang of Question 44. Why do animals come to the waterholes while it is still light? A. To see their ways .better B. To be alert to the possibility of danger C. To drink enough water before hunting D. To avoid people watching them Question 45. The word "he" in paragraph 3 refers to A. a person B. the writer C. a Marshall eagle D. a small fish Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep. A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. B. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping. C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep. D. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep. Question 47. Overeating is a cause of several deadly diseases. Physical inactivity is another cause of several deadly diseases. A. Not only overeating but also physical inactivity may lead to several deadly diseases. B. Apart from physical activities, eating too much also contributes to several deadly diseases. C. Both overeating and physical inactivity result from several deadly diseases. D. Overeating and physical inactivity are caused by several deadly diseases. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48. "Why don't we wear sunglasses?" our grandpa would say when we went out on bright sunny days. A. Our grandpa used to suggest wearing sunglasses when we went out on bright sunny days. B. Our grandpa would warn us against wearing sunglasses on bright sunny days. C. Our grandpa asked us why we did not wear sunglasses when going out on bright sunny days. D. Our grandpa reminded us of going out with sunglasses on bright sunny days. Question 49. I am sure he did not know that his brother graduated with flying colors. A. He should not have been envious of his brother's achievement. B. He cannot have known that his brother graduated with very high marks. C. That his brother graduated with flying colors must have been appreciated by him. D. He may not know that his brother is flying gradually up in a colorful balloon. Question 50. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year. A. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year. C. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year. PRACTICE TEST 96 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. column B. stupid C. situation D. studio Question 2. A. like B. find C. mind D. film Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. generation B. American C. preparation D. independent Question 4. A. recently B. conduct C. attitude D. marriage Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. The more I got to know them, the fewer I liked them. A B C D Question 6. The rings of Saturn are so distant to be seen from Earth without a telescope. A B C D Question 7. Do you know how much Vitamin C does an onion have? As much as two apples do. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. The train whistle warned us of its ____________ departure. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. previous B. imminent C. subsequent D. former Question 9. Time and neglect had ____________ the property A. deteriorated B. enhanced C. flourished D. acclimatized Question 10. An artist ____________ will do his best to express innocence and inexperience in the child’s face. A. portraying a child B. who portray a child C. he portrays a child D. portrayed a child Question 11. Which ____________ agency do you work for? A. ads B. advertised C. advertising D. advertisem*nt Question 12. His face looks ____________, but I can’t remember his name. A. similar B. alike C. memorable D. familiar Question 13. There is a ____________ of skilled craftsmen in the industry. A. warn B. fault C. lack D. short Question 14. I know you’re annoyed, but you must try to control your ____________. A. blood B. storm C. explosion D. temper Question 15. You will have to go for an interview tomorrow, but don't worry. It's just a ____________ A. form B. format C. formation D. formality Question 16. Mr. Jones knew who had won the contest, but he kept it under his ____________ until it was announced publicly. A. cap B. tongue C. hat D. umbrella Question 17. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning. A. Consequently B. Furthermore C. Otherwise D. However Question 18. He is the manager of the factory. He’s ________it. A. charged with B. charged C. in charge D. in charge of Question 19. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists. A. That giant pandas are B. Giant pandas are C. Are giant pandas D. Giant panda is Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. Son: “What is the process of ________________, Dad?” Father: “Well, it involves the heating of liquid such as milk in order to kill harmful bacteria.” A. industrialization B. pasteurization C. commercialization D. globalization Question 21. ‘‘Well it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash.’’ ‘‘_______________________’’. A. Ok, see you. B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too. C. Well, another time. D. That’s nice. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. This dinosaur was known to be carnivorous. A. vegetative B. nocturnal C. tardy D. flesh-eating Question 23. His approach was so stealthy that no one noticed him coming. A. fast B. secretive C. expected D. noisy Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country. A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guess Question 25. The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East. A. expensive B. complicated C. simple and easy to use D. difficult to operate Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. It was his lack of confidence that surprised me. A. He surprised me by his lack of confidence. B. That his lack of confidence surprised me. C. That he lacked of confidence surprised me. D. What surprised me was his lack of confidence. Question 27. I read two books, but I didn’t find them interesting. A. None of the two books I read was interesting. B. Either of the books I read weren’t interesting. C. Neither of the books I read was interesting.D. The two books I read wasn’t interesting. Question 28. “I didn’t break the window,” Jim said. A. Jim refused to break the window. B. Jim denied breaking the window. C. Jim admitted breaking the window. D. Jim told he didn’t break the window. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 29. Calling Jim is pointless. His phone is out of order. A. It is useless calling Jim because his phone is out of order. B. It’s no use to call Jim because his phone is out of order. C. There’s no point in calling Jim because his phone is out of order. D. It’s worth calling Jim because his phone is out of order. Question 30. His wife helped him. He was able to finish his book. A. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. B. If it weren’t for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. C. But for his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book. D. Hadn’t it been for his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. It stands to reason that a city like Los Angeles, which is home to the rich and famous, is also where you find the Association of Celebrity Personal Assistants. Celebrity Personal Assistants is a unique group among Hollywood professionals. (31)_______ the lawyers and agents who rub shoulders with the stars and make millions, personal assistants (PAs) are not paid well. They typically earn about $56,000 a year which, (32)_______ their round-the-clock obligations, isn’t much by Hollywood standards. As for the job description, it’s also far from glamorous. Responsibilities include doing laundry, fetching groceries and paying bills. So what's the attraction? One celebrity PA says, ‘I don’t (33)_______ myself a vain or superficial person, but it would be wrong to say that we all don't like being close to someone's that's powerful.’ But not everyone is qualified for the job. Rita Tateel teaches would-be assistants to the stars and begins her lessons with some (34)_______ truths: 'You must be in good health at all times, because you are running a celebrity's life. If you get sick their life can't just stop. And you need to be flexible and able to (35)_______ in all kinds of hours. You have to be a can-do person. If there’s one word that celebrities don't want to hear, that word is “no”.’ Question 31. A. However B. Unlike C. Despite D. Similarly Question 32. A. given B. received C. spend D. being Question 33. A. describe B. know C. consider D. think Question 34. A. such B. hard C. heavy D. advice Question 35. A. take B. adapt C. get D. put Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. The ability of falling cats to right themselves in midair and land on their feet has been a source of wonder for ages. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it bordered on the miraculous. Newton's laws of motion assume that the total amount of spin of a body cannot change unless an external torque speeds it up or slows it down. If a cat has no spin when it isreleased and experiences no external torque, it ought not to be able to twist around as it falls. In the speed of its execution, the righting of a tumbling cat resembles a magician's trick. The gyrations of the cat in midair are too fast for the human eye to follow, so the process is obscured. Either the eye must be speeded up, or the cat's fall slowed down for the phenomenon to be observed. A century ago the former was accomplished by means of high-speed photography using equipment now available in any pharmacy. But in the nineteenth century the capture on film of a falling cat constituted a scientific experiment. The experiment was described in a paper presented to the Paris Academy in 1894. Two sequences of twenty photographs each, one from the side and one from behind, show a white cat in the act of righting itself. Grainy and quaint though they are, the photos show that the cat was dropped upside down, with no initial spin, and still landed on its feet. Careful analysis of the photos reveals the secret; as the cat rotates the front of its body clockwise, the rear and tail twist counterclockwise, so that the total spin remains zero, in perfect accord with Newton's laws. Halfway down, the cat pulls in its legs before reversing its twist and then extends them again, with the desired end result. The explanation was that while nobody can acquire spin without torque, a flexible one can readily change its orientation, or phase. Cats know this instinctively, but scientists could not be sure how it happened until they increased the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold. Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The explanation of an interesting phenomenon B. Miracles in modern science C. Procedures in scientific investigation D. The differences between biology and physics Question 37. The word “process” in line 10 refers to A. the righting of a tumbling cat B. the cat's fall slowed down C. high-speed photography D. a scientific experiment Question 38. Why are the photographs mentioned in line 16 referred to as an “experiment”? Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. The photographs were not very clear. B. The purpose of the photographs was to explain the process. C. The photographer used inferior equipment. D. The photographer thought the cat might be injured. Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred about high-speed photography in the late 1800's? A. It was a relatively new technology. B. The necessary equipment was easy to obtain. C. The resulting photographs are difficult to interpret. D. It was not fast enough to provide new information. Question 40. The word “rotates” in line 19 is closest in meaning to A. drops B. turns C. controls D. touches Question 41. According to the passage, a cat is able to right itself in midair because it is A. frightened B. small C. intelligent D. flexible Question 42. How did scientists increase “the speed of their perceptions a thousandfold” (lines 25-26)? A. By analyzing photographs B. By observing a white cat in a dark room C. By dropping a cat from a greater height D. By studying Newton's laws of motion Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. With Robert Laurent and William Zorach, direct carving enters into the story of modern sculpture in the United States. Direct carving - in which the sculptors themselves carve stone or wood with mallet and chisel - must be recognized as something more than just a technique. Implicit in it is an aesthetic principle as well: that the medium has certain qualities of beauty and expressiveness with which sculptors must bring their own aesthetic sensibilities into harmony. For example, sometimes the shape or veining in a piece of stone or wood suggests, perhaps even dictates, not only the ultimate form, but even the subject matter. The technique of direct carving was a break with the nineteenth-century tradition in which the making of a clay model was considered the creative act and the work was then turned over to studio assistants to be cast in plaster or bronze or carved in marble. Neoclassical sculptors seldom held a mallet or chisel in their own hands, readily conceding that the assistants they employed were far better than they were at carving the finished marble. With the turn-of-the-century Crafts movement and the discovery of nontraditional sources of inspiration, such as wooden African figures and masks, there arose a new urge for hands-on, personal execution of art and an interaction with the medium. Even as early as the 1880's and 1890's, nonconformist European artists were attempting direct carving. By the second decade of the twentieth century, Americans — Laurent and Zorach most notably — had adopted it as their primary means of working. Born in France, Robert Laurent(1890-1970)was a prodigy who received his education in the United States. In 1905 he was sent to Paris as an apprentice to an art dealer, and in the years that followed he witnessed the birth of Cubism, discovered primitive art, and learned the techniques of woodcarving from a frame maker. Back in New York City by 1910, Laurent began carving pieces such as The Priestess, which reveals his fascination with African, pre-Columbian, and South Pacific art. Taking a walnut plank, the sculptor carved the expressive, stylized design. It is one of the earliest examples of direct carving in American sculpture. The plank's form dictated the rigidly frontal view and the low relief. Even its irregular shape must have appealed to Laurent as a break with a long-standing tradition that required a sculptor to work within a perfect rectangle or square. Question 43. The word “medium” in line 5 could be used to refer to A. stone or wood B. mallet and chisel C. technique D. principle Question 44. What is one of the fundamental principles of direct carving? A. A sculptor must work with talented assistants. B. The subject of a sculpture should be derived from classical stories. C. The material is an important element in a sculpture. D. Designing a sculpture is a more creative activity than carving it. Question 45. The word “dictates” in line 8 is closest in meaning to A. reads aloud B. Determines C. includes D. records Question 46. How does direct carving differ from the nineteenth-century tradition of sculpture? A. Sculptors are personally involved in the carving of a piece. B. Sculptors find their inspiration in neoclassical sources. C. Sculptors have replaced the mallet and chisel with other tools. D. Sculptors receive more formal training. Question 47. The word “witnessed” in line 23 is closest in meaning to Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. influenced
B. studied C. validated D. observed Question 48. Where did Robert Laurent learn to carve? A. New York B. Africa C. The South Pacific D. Paris Question 49. The phrase “a break with” in line 30 is closest in meaning to A. a destruction of B. a departure from C. a collapse of D. a solution to Question 50. The piece titled The Priestess has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A. The design is stylized. C. It is made of marble. B. The carving is not deep. D. It depicts the front of a person. THE END! PRACTICE TEST 97 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. benefit B. sentence C. get D. bed Question 2. A. fat B. date C. dad D. flat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. contractual B. significant C. Asian D. demanding Question 4. A. majority B. minority C. Partnership D. enjoyable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. My father has a mechanic to repair his motorbike monthly. A B C D Question 6. Weather and geography conditions may determine the type of transportation A B C used in a region. D Question 7. There always is one wise woman who is both feared and respected by her A B C people. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. Get going! All the students were ____________ around, waiting until the last minute to go into the building A. dwelling B. lingering C. staggering D. running Question 9. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said. A. thanking B. grateful C. considerate D. careful Question 10. He sat in a soft armchair and watched the world _____. A. go by B. pass on C. walk along D. fly past Question 11. If it hadn’t been for the hint that the professor ___, nobody would have found out the correct answer. A. dropped B. cast C. threw D. flung Question 12. The international conference of the Craniological Association has been ____ in Cairo to discuss the revolutionary discovery of Doctor Gonzales from Mexico. A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned Question 13. His parents have always wanted Philip to set a good ____ to his younger brothers both at school and at home. A. form B. model C. pattern D. guidance Question 14. The professor’s ____________ theory is that singing preceded speech. A. fancied B. fond C. pet D. preferable Question 15. Social work suits her____________ to the ground. A. for B. down C. out D. round Question 16. He spent his entire life____________ round the world, never settling down anywhere. A. roaming B. scattering C. scrambling D. transporting Question 17. You are under no obligation to help as assistance is purely ____________ A. voluntary B. free C. charitable D. donated Question 18. I’m afraid you may find the truth somewhat ____________ A. inedible B. unpalatable C. indigestible D. unmanageable Question 19. She’s very____________ She can be relied on to do her job properly. A. efficient B. cautious C. serious D. conservative Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. ‘Where can I get a cup of coffee?’ ‘_______’. A. No sugar, please. B. I’d like coffee. C. There’s a cafeteria downstairs. D. I’m thirsty. Question 21. ‘Could you tell me how to get to the post office?’ ‘_______’. A. Excuse me. Is it easy to get there? B. Yes, I could. C. It’s at the end of this street, opposite the church. D. Sorry, it’s not very far Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. Many people enrich themselves by taking educational classes. A. damage B. improve C. help D. research Question 23. His business specialized in manufacturing vacuum cleaners. A. selling B. buying C. making D. fixing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston. A. uncomfortable B. warm C. lazy D. dirty Question 25. He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week. A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. “That’s a lovely new dress, Jane,” said her mother. A. Jane’s mother said that she liked her lovely dress. B. Jane’s mother wanted to buy a lovely new dress. C. Jane’s mother complimented her on the lovely new dress. D. Jane’s mother told her to buy that lovely new dress. Question 27. We have run out of the items you want. A. We have to run out to buy the items you want. B. The items you want are out of our shop. C. For the items you want, we must run out. D. The items you want have been out of stock. Question 28. Be sure to get me some newspapers. A. I’m not sure about some newspapers. B. I certainly will get you some newspapers. C. Surely I’m going to get some newspapers. D. Remember to get me some newspapers. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. You should listen to the radio. You can be kept informed about current affairs. A. Only by listening to the radio you can keep yourself informed current affairs. B. Listening to the radio and you will be kept informed about current affairs. C. A good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs is listen to the radio. D. Listening to the radio is a good way of keeping yourself informed about current affairs. Question 30. You didn’t listen to me in the first place. You are in trouble right now. A. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in trouble right now. B. Had you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. C. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. D. Were you to listen to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in trouble right now. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. If you are an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little doubt it is here to stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (31) __________ even environmental ones. It's not really the plastic themselves that are the environmental evil - it's the way society chooses to use and abuse them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal-non-renewable natural (32) __________ We import well over three millions tones of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown away. A high (33) __________of our annual consumption is in the form of packaging, and this constitutes about 7% by weight of our domestic refuse. Almost all of it could be recycled, but very little of it is, though the plastic recycling (34) __________ is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely energy-rich - they have a higher calorific value than coal and one (35) __________ of "recovery" strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the conversion of waste plastic into a fuel. Question 31. A. savings B. pleasures C. benefits D. profits Question 32. A. processes B. resources C. products D. fuels Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 33. A. amount B. proportion C. portion D. rate Question 34. A. industry B. manufacture C. plant D. factory Question 35. A. medium B. method C. measure D. mechanism Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. The hard, rigid plates that form the outermost portion of the Earth are about 100 kilometers thick. These plates include both the Earth's crust and the upper mantle. The rocks of the crust are composed mostly of minerals with light elements, like aluminum and sodium, while the mantle contains some heavier elements, like iron and magnesium. Together, the crust and upper mantle that form the surface plates are called the lithosphere. This rigid layer floats on the denser material of the lower mantle the way a wooden raft floats on a pond. The plates are supported by a weak, plastic layer of the lower mantle called the asthenosphere. Also like a raft on a pond, the lithospheric plates are carried along by slow currents in this more fluid layer beneath them. With an understanding of plate tectonics, geologists have put together a new history for the Earth's surface. About 200 million years ago, the plates at the Earth's surface formed a “supercontinent” called Pangaea. When this supercontinent started to tear apart because of plate movement, Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses with a newly formed sea that grew between the land areas as the depression filled with water. The southern one — which included the modern continents of South America, Africa, Australia, and Antarctica — is called Gondwanaland. The northern one — with North America, Europe, and Asia — is called Laurasia. North America tore away from Europe about 180 million years ago, forming the northern Atlantic Ocean. Some of the lithospheric plates carry ocean floor and others carry land masses or a combination of the two types. The movement of the lithospheric plates is responsible for earthquakes, volcanoes, and the Earth's largest mountain ranges. Current understanding of the interaction between different plates explains why these occur where they do. For example, the edge of the Pacific Ocean has been called the “Ring of Fire” because so many volcanic eruptions and earthquakes happen there. Before the 1960's, geologists could not explain why active volcanoes and strong earthquakes were concentrated in that region. The theory of plate tectonics gave them an answer. Question 36. With which of the following topics is the passage mainly concerned? A. The contributions of the theory of plate tectonics to geological knowledge B. The mineral composition of the Earth's crust C. The location of the Earth's major plates D. The methods used by scientists to measure plate movement Question 37. According to the passage, the lithospheric plates are given support by the A. upper mantle B. ocean floor C. crust D. asthenosphere Question 38. The author compares the relationship between the lithosphere and the asthenosphere to which of the following? A. Lava flowing from a volcano B. A boat floating on the water C. A fish swimming in a pond D. The erosion of rocks by running water Question 39. The word “one” in line 14 refers to A. movements B. masses C. sea D. depression Question 40. According to the passage, the northern Atlantic Ocean was formed when A. Pangaea was created B. plate movement ceased C. Gondwanaland collided with Pangaea D. parts of Laurasia separated from each other Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred about the theory of plate tectonics? A. It is no longer of great interest to geologists. B. It was first proposed in the 1960's. C. It fails to explain why earthquakes occur. D. It refutes the theory of the existence of a supercontinent. Question 42. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses A. why certain geological events happen where they do B. how geological occurrences have changed over the years C. the most unusual geological developments in the Earth's history D. the latest innovations in geological measurement Question 43. In line 20, the word “concentrated” is closest in meaning to which of the following? A. Allowed B. Clustered C. Exploded D. Strengthened Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. The changing profile of a city in the United States is apparent in the shifting definitions used by the United States Bureau of the Census. In 1870 the census officially distinguished the nation's “urban” from its “rural” population for the first time. “Urban population” was defined as persons living in towns of 8,000 inhabitants or Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose more. But after 1900 it meant persons living in incorporated places having 2,500 or more inhabitants. Then, in 1950 the Census Bureau radically changed its definition of “urban” to take account of the new vagueness of city boundaries. In addition to persons living in incorporated units of 2,500 or more, the census now included those who lived in unincorporated units of that size, and also all persons living in the densely settled urban fringe, including both incorporated and unincorporated areas located around cities of 50,000 inhabitants or more. Each such unit, conceived as an integrated economic and social unit with a large population nucleus, was named a Standard Metropolitan Statistical Area (SMSA). Each SMSA would contain at least (a) one central city with 50,000 inhabitants or more or (b) two cities having shared boundaries and constituting, for general economic and social purposes, a single community with a combined population of at least 50,000, the smaller of which must have a population of at least 15,000. Such an area included the county in which the central city is located, and adjacent counties that are found to be metropolitan in character and economically and socially integrated with the county of the central city. By 1970, about two-thirds of the population of the United States was living in these urbanized areas, and of that figure more than half were living outside the central cities. While the Census Bureau and the United States government used the term SMSA (by 1969 there were 233 of them), social scientists were also using new terms to describe the elusive, vaguely defined areas reaching out from what used to be simple “towns” and “cities”. A host of terms came into use: “metropolitan regions,” “polynucleated population groups”, “conurbations,” “metropolitan clusters,” “megalopolises,” and so on. Question 44. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. How cities in the United States began and developed B. Solutions to overcrowding in cities C. The changing definition of an urban area D. How the United States Census Bureau conducts a census Question 45. According to the passage, the population of the United States was first classified as rural or urban in A. 1870 B. 1900 C. 1950 D. 1970 Question 46. According to the passage, why did the Census Bureau revise the definition of urban in 1950? A. City borders had become less distinct. B. Cities had undergone radical social change. C. Elected officials could not agree on an acceptable definition. D. New businesses had relocated to larger cities. Question 47. Which of the following is NOT true of an SMSA? A. It has a population of at least 50,000 B. It can include a city's outlying regions. C. It can include unincorporated regions. D. It consists of at least two cities. Question 48. By 1970, what proportion of the population in the United States did NOT live in an SMSA? A. 3/4 B. 2/3 C. 1/2 D. 1/3 Question 49. The Census Bureau first used the term “SMSA” in A. 1900 B. 1950 C. 1969 D. 1970 Question 50. Prior to 1900, how many inhabitants would a town have to have before being defined as urban? A. 2,500 B. 8,000 C. 15,000 D. 50,000 THE END!
PRACTICE TEST 98 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. study B. success C. surprise D. sugar Question 2. A. yacht B. watch C. wash D. wall Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. preserve B. addition C. routine D. business Question 4. A. scientist B. engineer C. confidence D. serious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. They are very pleasant to travel by steamer down the Thames from Westminster to Tower Bridge. A B C D Question 6. Studying the science of logic is one way to cultivate one’s reason skills. A B C D Question 7. One day a fame singer was invited by a rich lady to her house. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 8. We have to __the hard times hoping that things will change for the better in the future. A. maintain B. endure C. persist D. outlive Question 9. Alex was ____ enough on becoming a professional sportsman and he didn’t want to listen to anyone else’s advice. A. intent B. eager C. definite D. certain Question 10. What is the verdict of the report? Has the cause of the catastrophe been _____ yet? A. specified B. informed C. accounted D. judged Question 11. Our classroom is supplied with ____________ A. an heavy equipment B. a heavy equipment C. heavy equipments D. heavy equipment Question 12. There are several means of mass communication. The newspaper is one, television is ____________ A. other B. the other C. another D. others Question 13. Despite their initial objections, we soon ____________ them all playing football together. A. made B. had C. organized D. persuaded Question 14. We may win, we may lose – it’s just the ____________ of the draw! A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck Question 15. Due to the computer malfunction all our data was lost. So unhappily, we had to begin all the calculations from ____________. A. onset B. source C. original D. scratch Question 16. The ____________ of the project has been suspended because of the inadequate financing. A. implementation B. establishment C. installation D. exploration Question 17. He clearly had no __________of doing any work, although it was only a week till the exam. A. desire B. ambition C. willingness D. intention Question 18. An application to join this scheme places you under no obligation________ A. indeed B. eventually C. apart D. whatsoever Question 19. The jury _____ her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject. A. paid B. gave C. made D. said Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. ‘Didn’t you watch Frankenstein last night?’ ‘_______, I hate horror films’. A. Yes B. No C. Of course D. Sure Question 21. ‘_______’. ‘This one, please.’ A. Do you like these magazines? B. Are these magazines interesting? C. Which of these magazines, don’t you? D. You like these magazines, don’t you? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The filmmaker tried to depict the lives of the early colonists in his movie. A. laugh at B. destroy C. name D. show Question 23. He spent many months working on his car to modify its fuel injection system. A. change B. remove C. transfer D. resell Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. In remote communities, it's important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in. A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat Question 25. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned. A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. The children pestered us for sweets. A. The children kept asking us for sweets. B. The children gave us all their sweets. C. The children confided in us for giving them the sweets. D. The children disturbed us by asking for sweets. Question 27. They will soon find out what she’s been doing. A. It won’t be long since they find out what she has been doing. B. It won’t take them a long time to find what she’s done. C. It won’t be long before they find out what she’s been doing. D. It’s won’t be long before they find out what’s she’s been doing. Question 28. You should wash your shirt right now before that stain dries. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. You should wash your shirt in order for the stain to dry right now. B. B. Before that stain dry, don’t wash your shirt right now. C. No sooner does the stain dry so you should wash the shirt before it dry. D. Your shirt needs washing right now before that stain dries. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. Your handwriting is legible. The test scorer will accept your answer. A. Providing with your legible handwriting, the test scorer will accept your answer. B. Providing your handwriting is legible, the test scorer won’t accept your answer. C. Provided that your handwriting is legible, the test scorer will accept your answer. D. Provided for your legible handwriting, the test scorer won’t accept your answer. Question 30. The unemployment rate is high. The crime rate is usually also high. A. The high rate of unemployment depends on the high rate of crime. B. The higher the unemployment rate is, the higher the crime rate is. C. The unemployment rate and the crime rate are both higher. D. The unemployment rate is as high as the crime rate. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. In 1830, there were under 100 miles of public railway in Britain. Yet within 20 years, this figure had grown to more than 5000 miles. By the end of the century, almost enough rail track to encircle the world covered this small island, (31) __________ the nature of travel forever and contributing to the industrial revolution that changed the course of history in many parts of the world. Wherever railways were introduced, economic and social progress quickly (32) __________ In a single day, rail passengers could travel hundreds of miles, cutting previous journey times by huge margins and bringing rapid travel within the (33) __________ of ordinary people. Previously, many people had never ventured beyond the outskirts of their town and villages. The railway brought them greater freedom and enlightenment. In the 19th century, the railway in Britain represented something more than just the business of carrying goods and passengers. Trains were associated with romance, adventure and, frequently, (34) __________ luxury. But the railways did more than revolutionize travel; they also left a distinctive and permanent mark on the British landscape. Whole towns and industrial centers (35) __________ up around major rail junctions, monumental bridges and viaducts crossed rivers and valleys and the railway stations themselves became desirable places to spend time between journeys. Question 31. A. altering B. amending C. adapting D. adjusting Question 32. A. pursued B. followed C. succeeded D. chased Question 33. A. reach B. capacity C. facility D. hold Question 34. A. considerable B. generous C. plentiful D. sizeable Question 35. A. jumped B. stood C. burst D. sprang Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvement; second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit. In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets reflected both similarities in and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came under state inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price-fixing by businesses. Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native industries. Toward these ends the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose that was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century. Question 36. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. States's rights versus federal rights B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century. D. Regulatory activity by state governments Question 37. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved state governments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education Question 38. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were A. built with money that came from the federal government B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously C. built predominantly in the western part of the country D. sometimes built in part by state companies Question 39. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber Question 40. The word “ends” in line 20 is closest in meaning to A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862? A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West. B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West. C. It increased the money supply in the West. D. It established tariffs in a number of regions. Question 42. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth century? A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked C. Regulation of the supply of money D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. What we today call American folk art was, indeed, art of, by, and for ordinary, everyday “folks” who, with increasing prosperity and leisure, created a market for art of all kinds, and especially for portraits. Citizens of prosperous, essentially middle-class republics — whether ancient Romans, seventeenth-century Dutch burghers, or nineteenth-century Americans — have always shown a marked taste for portraiture. Starting in the late eighteenth century, the United States contained increasing numbers of such people, and of the artists who could meet their demands. The earliest American folk art portraits come, not surprisingly, from New England — especially Connecticut and Massachusetts — for this was a wealthy and populous region and the center of a strong craft tradition. Within a few decades after the signing of the Declaration of Independence in 1776, the population was pushing westward, and portrait painters could be found at work in western New York, Ohio, Kentucky, Illinois, and Missouri. Midway through its first century as a nation, the United States' population had increased roughly five times, and eleven new states had been added to the original thirteen. During these years the demand for portraits grew and grew eventually to be satisfied by the camera. In 1839 the daguerreotype was introduced to America, ushering in the age of photography, and within a generation the new invention put an end to the popularity of painted portraits. Once again an original portrait became a luxury, commissioned by the wealthy and executed by the professional. But in the heyday of portrait painting — from the late eighteenth century until the 1850's — anyone with a modicum of artistic ability could become a limner, as such a portraitist was called. Local craftspeople — sign, coach, and house painters — began to paint portraits as a profitable sideline; sometimes a talented man or woman who began by sketching family members gained a local reputation and was besieged with requests for portraits; artists found it worth their while to pack their paints, canvases, and brushes and to travel the countryside, often combining house decorating with portrait painting. Question 43. In lines 4-5 the author mentions seventeenth-century Dutch burghers as an example of a group that Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. consisted mainly of self-taught artists
B. appreciated portraits C. influenced American folk art D. had little time for the arts Question 44. According to the passage, where were many of the first American folk art portraits painted? A. In western New York B. In Illinois and Missouri C. In Connecticut and Massachusetts D. In Ohio Question 45. How much did the population of the United States increase in the first fifty years following independence? A. It became three times larger. B. It became five times larger. C. It became eleven times larger. D. It became thirteen times larger. Question 46. The phrase “ushering in” in line 17 is closest in meaning to A. beginning B. demanding C. publishing D. increasing Question 47. The relationship between the daguerreotype (line 16) and the painted portrait is similar to the relationship between the automobile and the A. highway B. driver C. engine D. horse-drawn carriage Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following contributed to a decline in the demand for painted portrait? A. The lack of a strong craft tradition B. The westward migration of many painters C. The growing preference for landscape paintings D. The invention of the camera Question 49. The author implies that most limners (line 22) A. received instruction from traveling teachers B. were women C. were from wealthy families D. had no formal art training Question 50. The phrase “worth their while” in line 26 is closest in meaning to A. essential B. educational C. profitable D. pleasurable THE END! PRACTICE TEST 99 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. weather B. hearty C. meadow D. breath Question 2. A. ruin B. fruit C. cruise D. juice Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. equipment B. retirement C. technical D. attention Question 4. A. support B. satisfied C. concern D. religious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Doing too much too quickly can damage muscles that aren't used to work. A B C D Question 6. The root of the trees allow the water to go into the soil, that gradually releases it A B C to flow down rivers. D Question 7. If you have any doubts about taking up cycling for health reasons, talk to your A B C doctor and ask his or her advice. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8. If he tries to____________ ignorance as his excuse, just tell him we’ve got a copy of the authorization with his signature on it. A. defend B. plead C. pretend D. protest Question 9. We were working overtime to cope with a sudden____________ in demand. A. boost B. impetus C. surge D. thrust Question 10. Only because she had to support her family _______ to leave school. A. that Alice decides B. did Alice decide C. does Alice decide D. Alice decided Question 11. The confidence trickster____________ the old lady out of her life savings. A. deceived B. misled C. robbed D. swindled Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 12. Her guest apologized for causing her so much ____________ A. problem B. complication C. trouble D. damage Question 13. This cloth ____________very thin. A. feels B. touches C. holds D. handles Question 14. Bread and butter ____________ his favorite breakfast. A. is B. are C. make D. making Question 15. As Roger had resigned, the company decided to take no further ____________against him. A. action B. demand C. activity D. conduct Question 16. I cannot help ____________ anxious about the exam results. A. to feel B. felt C. feeling D. feel Question 17. The construction of the new road is ____________ winning the support of local residents. A. thanks to B. reliant on C. dependent on D. responsible to Question 18. He was very upset when the boss passed him____________ and promoted a newcomer to the assistant’s job. A. by B. up C. over D. aside Question 19. The government’s new safety pamphlet____________ against smoking in bed. A. advises B. declares C. emphasizes D. stresses Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20. ‘I feel a bit cold, actually.’ ‘_______’. A. Neither do I. B. So do I. C. I don’t, either. D. I feel so. Question 21. ‘I can’t thank you enough for your help.’ ‘_______’. A. I’d rather not. B. My pleasure. C. I don’t mind. D. My goodness. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22. The group had an ideology that many other people found offensive. A. vehicle B. smell C. haircut D. way of thinking Question 23. The citizens protested until the unfair law was repeated. A. canceled B. noticed C. joined D. doubled Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24. There is growing concern about the way man has destroyed the environment. A. ease B. attraction C. consideration D. speculation Question 25. Fruit and vegetables grew in abundance on the island. The islanders even exported the surplus. A. large quantity B. small quantity C. excess D. sufficiency Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26. No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back. A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone. B. Scarely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back. C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately. D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back. Question 27. More petrol is consumed nowadays than ten years ago. A. Not so much petrol was consumed ten years ago as nowadays. B. Petrol consumption is going down nowadays. C. We had more petrol ten years ago than we do nowadays. D. We should consume as much petrol as possible. Question 28. He delayed writing the book until he had done a lot of research. A. Only after he had done a lot of research did he begin to write the book. B. He did a lot of research after he finished writing the book. C. He delayed writing the book as he had already done any research. D. It was only when he had written the book that he did a lot of research. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29. People make wine to enjoy themselves. It is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose A. Despite making wine to enjoy themselves, it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health. B. Despite having bad effects on their mental and physical health, people make wine to enjoy themselves. C. Although people make wine to enjoy themselves but it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health. D. Although people make wine to enjoy themselves, it is wine that has bad effects on their mental and physical health. Question 30. They were buying a cup of coffee. They public address system called out Nigel’s name. A. Just as they were buying a cup of coffee when the public address system called out Nigel’s name. B. As they were buying a cup of coffee then the public address system called out Nigel’s name. C. They were buying a cup of coffee when the public address called out Nigel’s name. D. Just as the public address system called out Nigel’s name, they were buying a cup of coffee. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Over the next 20 to 50 years, it will become harder to tell the (31) _____ between the human and the machine. All, body parts will be replaceable. Computers will function like the human brain with the ability to recognize feelings and respond in a feeling way. They will then produce fake people. We will then be able to create a machine duplicate of ourselves so we will appear to be alive long after we are dead. Maybe a few decades later, a way will be found to transfer our spirit, including our (32) _____ and thoughts, to the new body. Then we can choose to live for as long as we want. It might be expensive. When it becomes possible to do a spirit transfer, they will figure out (33) _____ to do them automatically. So we will be able to reside within whichever duplicate we want, whenever we want. Miniature robots will be built to travel through your blood stream and repair damage. Also, larger robots will be used when you are sick. When you have an upset stomach, you will (34) _____ a very small cherry tasting robot which will travel through your stomach taking video of the mess. It will be set up like a video game, so you can control the exploring and the selection of images. Then you can replay the video to help a doctor (35) _____ your illness, or to prove to your employer that you really, were sick. Question 31. A. variety B. change C. difference D. appearance Question 32. A. experience B. memories C. actions D. health Question 33. A. what B. when C. why D. how Question 34. A. swallow B. chew C. vomit D. drink Question 35. A. notice B. diagnose C. watch D. observe Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. It is commonly believed in the United States that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important. Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no bounds. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in a kitchen or on a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in schools and the whole universe of informal learning. The agents of education can range from a revered grandparent to the people debating politics on the radio, from a child to a distinguished scientist. Whereas schooling has a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People are engaged in education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term. It is a lifelong process, a process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be an integral part of one's entire life. Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at approximately the same time, take assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take exams, and so on. The slices of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an understanding of the workings of government, have usually been limited by the boundaries of the subject being taught. For example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth about political problems in their communities or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with. There are definite conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling. Question 36. What does the author probably mean by using the expression “children interrupt their education to go to school” (lines 2-3)? A. Going to several different schools is educationally beneficial. B. School vacations interrupt the continuity of the school year. C. Summer school makes the school year too long. D. All of life is an education. Question 37. The word “bounds” in line 6 is closest in meaning to A. rules B. experience C. limits D. exceptions Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 38. The word “integral” in line 15 is closest in meaning to A. equitable B. profitable C. pleasant D. essential Question 39. The word “they” in line 20 refers to A. slices of reality B. similar textbooks C. boundaries D. seats Question 40. The phrase “For example,” line 22, introduces a sentence that gives examples of A. similar textbooks B. the results of schooling C. the workings of a government D. the boundaries of classroom subjects Question 41. The passage supports which of the following conclusions? A. Without formal education, people would remain ignorant. B. Education systems need to be radically reformed. C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated. D. Education involves many years of professional training. Question 42. The passage is organized by A. listing and discussing several educational problems B. contrasting the meanings of two related words C. narrating a story about excellent teachers D. giving examples of different kinds of schools Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after Earth was formed. Yet another three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life. What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first terrestrial organisms is based on mega fossils — relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive mega fossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eaters. Moreover, the mega fossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago. Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans — plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism. These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms. Question 43. The word “drastic” in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. widespread B. radical C. progressive D. risky Question 44. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view,” what was the first form of life to appear on land? A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants Question 45. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago? A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out. B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate. C. The mega fossils were destroyed by floods. D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas. Question 46. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in lines 17-20? A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life. B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils. C. They are older than the mega fossils. D. They consist of modern life-forms. Question 47. The word “they” in line 22 refers to A. Rocks B. shores C. oceans D. specimens Question 48. The word “entombed” in lime 22 is closest in meaning to A. crushed B. trapped C. produced D. excavated Question 49. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils? A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised. B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses. Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained. D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed. Question 50. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree? A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself. B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved. C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years. D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of fossils. PRACTICE TEST 100 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1. A. butter B. gum C. butcher D. summer Question 2. A. hall B. salt C. drawn D. roll Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3. A. decimal B. emperor C. memorise D. intervene Question 4. A. specific B. admirable C. animate D. realize Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5. Not until he got home he realised he had forgotten to give her the present. A B C D Question 6. He has hardly never given a more impressive performance than this. A B C D Question 7. The student must have her assessment form fill in by the examiner during the oral exam. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions Question 8. ___________________with my previous job, I would have won a higher promotion and I in this unfortunate position now. A. Unless I had stayed I am not B. If I stayed / would not be C. If had I stayed I will not be D. Had I stayed / would not be Question 9. Quite soon, the world is going to __energy resources. A. get into B. run out of C. keep up with D. come up against Question 10. I know you are upset about breaking up with Tom, but there are plenty more A. horses in the stable B. cows in the shed C. tigers in the jungle D. fish in the sea Question 11. It's no good pretending; you've got to reality. A. get down to B. bargain for C. come up against D. face up to Question 12. Not only to speak to him, but she also vowed never to see him again. A. she refused B. did she refuse C. she did refuse D. when she refused Question 13. It was so foggy that the driver couldn't the traffic signs. A. break out B. keep out C. make out D. take out Question 14. I'll have to go to the funeral of Ms. Jane, a of mine. A. heart to heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bones Question 15. Wood that has been specially treated is regular wood. A. as water resistant much more than B. water resistant much more than C. more than water resistant D. much more water resistant than Question 16. Matthew's hands were covered in oil because he his bike. A. had been mending B. has mended C. has been mending D. had mended Question 17. We found some real at the market. A. prizes B. goods C. bargains D. items Question 18. The at the football match cheered their team on. A. congregation B. onlookers C. audience D. spectators Question 19. I'm sorry you've decided not to go with us on the river trip, but you change your mind, there will still be enough room on the boat for you A. even B. nevertheless C. in the event that D. provided that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges Question 20. Peter: "I've been awarded a scholarship to study in America." ~ Kate: "Uh, really? " A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are Question 21. - John: "I can't see the stage very well from here." - Jack: " " A. Neither can't I. B. So do I C. Neither I can D. I can't, either Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer for each of the blanks Sugar was for a long time a luxury and in the opinion of the medical profession it still should be. During the nineteenth century, however, manufactures discovered (22) ______ of producing it in vast quantities and it has since become one of the staple articles of diet, particularly for the lower social classes. It has the advantages of being comparatively cheap, easily digested, rich in energy and useful for flavoring. Its major drawbacks are that it lacks every nourishing quality except that of giving energy, and because of its attractive flavor it (23)______ to displace other much more valuable foods from the diet. Most serious of all is its adverse (24) _____ on health, since excessive consumption can cause heart trouble, obesity and dental decay. The latter is widespread among the inhabitants of western countries. From the very young to the very old, (25) ______ anyone escapes. Yet if parents would drastically reduce the (26) ______ of confectionery they allow their children to eat, the extend of dental decay would soon be made Question 22: A. recipes B. means C. uses D. methods Question 23: A. approaches B. comes C. include D. tends Question 24: A. influence B. affect C. focus D. effect Question 25: A. difficulty B. hardly C. harshly D. severely Question 26: A. value B. quality C. number D. amount Mark the letter A, B, C; or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 27. The newscaster gave a concise account of the tragedy. A. long and detailed B. complicated and intricate C. sad and depressing D. short and clear Question 28. There were so many members of the political party who had gone against the leader that he resigned. A. apposed B. insisted C. invited D. opposed Mark the letter A, B, G or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 29. It gives out light, but not heat and so is safe to use near inflammable liquids. A. difficult to burn B. easy to burn C. sunburnt D. semi-burnt Question 30. Experts hope that the vaccine will be mass-produced soon. A. produced in great numbers B. produced in small numbers C. produced cheaply D. produced with high cost Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Archimedes’s Principle is a law of physics that states that when an object is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it experiences an upthrust equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. The principle is most frequently applied to the behaviour of objects in water, and helps to explain floating and sinking, and why objects seem lighter in water. It also applies to balloons. The key word in the principle is “upthrust”, which refers to the force acting upward to reduce the apparent weight of the object when it is under water. If, for example, a metal block with a volume of 100 cm 3 is dipped in water, it displaces an equal volume of water, which has a weight of approximately 1 N (3.5 oz). The block therefore seems to weigh about 1 N less. An object will float if its average density is less than that of water. If it is totally submerged, the weight of the water it displaces (and hence the upthrust on it) is greater than its own weight, and it is forced upward and out of water, until the weight if water displaced by submerged part is exactly equal to the weight of the floating object. Thus a block of wood with a density six tenths that of water will float with six tenths of its volume under water, since at that point the weight of fluid displaced is the same as the blocks’s own weight. If a dense material is made into a suitable shape, it will float because of Archimedes’s principle. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks. It is also because of Archimedes’s principle that ships float lower in the water when they are heavily loaded (more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust). In addition, they cannot be so heavily loaded if they are to sail in fresh water as they can if they are to sail in the sea, since fresh water is less dense than sea water, and so more water must be displaced to give the necessary upthrust. This means the ship is lower in the water, which can be dangerous in rough weather. From “Archimedes’s Principle”, Microsoft Student 2008[DVD]. Microsoft Corporation, 2007. Question 31. What happens when something is immersed in a fluid? A. It will be pushed further down with a force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. B. It receives an upward force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. C. It receives a download force, equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. D. The fluid will expand the object and overflow to the floor. Question 32. The word “volume” in the passage refers to ______. A. loudness B. quantity C. frequency D. lenght Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose Question 33. The word “displaces” in the passage almost means “_____”. A. takes the place of B. takes place C. replaces with a new one D. puts in position Question 34. A block of wood with a density seven tenths that of water will _____. A .go up and down the sink B. float with a half of its volume under water C. float with an equal volume of its volume under water D. sink immediately when submerged Question 35. A ship floats, whereas a block of iron of the same mass sinks because the ship _____. A. is made of wood B. is lighter C. has buoys D. has a special shape Question 36. The word “upthrust” in the passage refers to the _____. A. upward push B. upper side of an object C. upturned force D. upside-down turn Question 37. Ships cannot be so heavily loaded if they want to sail in fresh water as they sail in the sea, because _____.A. fresh water is ‘lighter’ than sea water B. there’s too much salt in sea water C. sea water is ‘saltier’ than fresh water D. fresh water is more polluted Question 38. Archimedes’ Principle explains why _____. A. all objects will float B. Archimedes became famous C. objects seem lighter in water D. humans can swim Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 40. In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious purpose. Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays cartoons are often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of social matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe and the United States. Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way. In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chines cartoons. This is not their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons have aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the people. Today, howerver, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer a very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular country in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese philosophers and sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture. Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to the East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong Kong and Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the West. Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is worth a thousand words.” Question 39. Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons? A. Originality, freshness, and astonishment. B. Humour, unexpectedness, and criticism. C. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness. D. Seriousness, propagande, and attractiveness. Question 40. Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of________. A. educating ordinary people B. spreading Western ideas C. political propaganda in wartime D. amusing people all the time Question 41. The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their________. A. purposes B. nationalities C. values D. styles Question 42. The passage is intended to present________. A. a contrast between Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons B. an opinion about how cartoons entertain people C. a description of cartoons of all kinds the world over D. an outline of Western cartoons and Chinese cartoons Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title for the passage? A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People B. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People Never give up!
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Practice makes perfect! Grade 12- tuberose C. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons D. An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda Question 44. In general, Chinese cartoons are now aiming at________. A. illustrating the truth of Chinese great men’s famous sayings B. bringing education to illiterate and semi-literate people in the world C. spreading the Chinese ideas and cultural values throughout the world D. disseminating traditional practices in China and throughout the world Question 45. The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to________. A. The mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons B. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons C. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East D. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 46. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not talented. A. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals. B. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals. C. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented. D. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his success. Question 47. I did not arrive in time. I was not able to see her off. A. She had left because I was not on time. B. I did not go there, so I could not see her off. C. I was not early enough to see her off. D. I arrived very late to say goodbye to her. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 48. David was narrowly defeated and blew his own chance of becoming a champion. A. Losing the championship came as a terrible blow to David. B. In spite of the narrow defeat, David won the championship. C. As a result of his narrow defeat, David did not win the championship. D. But for his title as the former champion, David would not have defeated his rivals. Question 49. If you had stuck to what we originally agreed on, everything would have been fine. A. If you had not kept to what was originally agreed on, ever/thing would have been fine. B. Things went wrong because you violated our original agreement. C. If you had changed our original agreement, everything would have been fine. D. As you fulfilled the original contract, things went wrong. Question 50. "I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job," he said to me. A. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job. B. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him. C. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job. D. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job. THE END!
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